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Aristotle wrote that a tyrant would be well advised to put

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Aristotle wrote that a tyrant would be well advised to put [#permalink] New post 02 Feb 2004, 11:07
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A
B
C
D
E

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Aristotle wrote that a tyrant would be well advised to put on the appearance of uncommon devotion to religion. Subjects are more tolerant of unjust treatment from a ruler whom they consider god-rearing and pious. Moreover as most subjects believer that even the gods are on the side of the ruler, the subjects are less apt to move against him.

Which one of the following is an assumption on which AristotleтАЩs argument depends?

(A) The subjects of tyrannical rulers typically believe that there is a power other than the mortal.

(B) A tyrant cannot rule unless he has divine power on his side.

(C) The subjects of tyrannical rulers can rarely be fooled by appearances.

(D) Tyrants who are devoted to religion will not treat their subjects unjustly

(E) For a tyrant, the appearance of uncommon devotion to religion is a more effective means of ruling than unjust treatment.
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 [#permalink] New post 02 Feb 2004, 11:49
A and B look good.
I will go with A
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 [#permalink] New post 02 Feb 2004, 12:10
Agree that A looks good, but posit that B looks like dog vomit.
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 [#permalink] New post 02 Feb 2004, 12:21
I believe A is the answer also. B cannot be it because it nowhere mentioned in the statement that a ruler cannot rule if he has no divine power by his side. The premise only says that the subjects of a God-rearing ruler will be less prone to move against him but there is no mention about the ruler not being able to rule without such divine power. C was misleading but it rather weakens the argument instead of being an assumption
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 [#permalink] New post 02 Feb 2004, 12:49
Paul wrote:
I believe A is the answer also. B cannot be it because it nowhere mentioned in the statement that a ruler cannot rule if he has no divine power by his side. The premise only says that the subjects of a God-rearing ruler will be less prone to move against him but there is no mention about the ruler not being able to rule without such divine power. C was misleading but it rather weakens the argument instead of being an assumption


Can someone translate the argument(question stem) into 21th century English that can
be understood by 4 year old. :?
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 [#permalink] New post 03 Feb 2004, 04:42
kpadma wrote:
Paul wrote:
I believe A is the answer also. B cannot be it because it nowhere mentioned in the statement that a ruler cannot rule if he has no divine power by his side. The premise only says that the subjects of a God-rearing ruler will be less prone to move against him but there is no mention about the ruler not being able to rule without such divine power. C was misleading but it rather weakens the argument instead of being an assumption


Can someone translate the argument(question stem) into 21th century English that can
be understood by 4 year old. :?


Both premises in the statement describe a favorable relationship between the ruler and the gods. Hence, in order for this to have an effect upon the ruler's subjects, they must also believe in the gods else the effect of this relationship is moot.
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  [#permalink] 03 Feb 2004, 04:42
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