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03 Aug 2006, 17:43
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This is from the dreaded Kaplan CD, but I have a question about it. I knew that the answer was B, but I thought it could only be so if the line originated from the origin. Since this wasn't specified, I chose E, but I guess I out-thought myself.

On the real test, they will make it clear that the line originates from the origin, right???
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03 Aug 2006, 18:15
microjohn wrote:
This is from the dreaded Kaplan CD, but I have a question about it. I knew that the answer was B, but I thought it could only be so if the line originated from the origin. Since this wasn't specified, I chose E, but I guess I out-thought myself.

On the real test, they will make it clear that the line originates from the origin, right???

nothing wrong with B. if c = d, then r = 45
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03 Aug 2006, 18:37
even if the line is not coming from the origin?
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03 Aug 2006, 19:43
microjohn wrote:
even if the line is not coming from the origin?

But its shown that its coming from origin. Question should have stated that line OX where O is the origin. Thats why I hate KAPLAN book. It tricks you on wording rather than concept.
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03 Aug 2006, 19:59
thanks dahiya. That's what I'm saying. Origin is not specified, and if you look at the line, it actually begins a little above the origin.
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03 Aug 2006, 21:49
I know Kaplan sucks.... but IMO we can assume this. Right?
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03 Aug 2006, 23:08
B....

I can see the confusion, I agree the diagram is a little messed up.
Kaplan has ways to go....
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04 Aug 2006, 05:29
microjohn wrote:
even if the line is not coming from the origin?

i also supposed that the line originated from the origin, we cannot suppose. so now st. 2 is also not suffcient. 1 and 2 are not suff. answer should be E.

the approach used in kaplan book is flawed..
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04 Aug 2006, 05:51
Professor wrote:
microjohn wrote:
even if the line is not coming from the origin?

i also supposed that the line originated from the origin, we cannot suppose. so now st. 2 is also not suffcient. 1 and 2 are not suff. answer should be E.

the approach used in kaplan book is flawed..

Professor,

It can be easily inferred that O is the origin since X and Y axis are shown and the point where X and Y axis intersect is the origin. We dont have to suppose anything here. So, IMO the answer is B.
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Re: It can be inferred [#permalink]

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04 Aug 2006, 17:37
nope. you cannot make any supposition. ok, you can make inference but how do you infer that the line is originated from O (0,0)? you have to prove it.

either the question must provide or you should prove that the origin of the line is O (0,0).

this is a bad question at all.

yessuresh wrote:
Professor wrote:
microjohn wrote:
even if the line is not coming from the origin?

i also supposed that the line originated from the origin, we cannot suppose. so now st. 2 is also not suffcient. 1 and 2 are not suff. answer should be E.

the approach used in kaplan book is flawed..

Professor,

It can be easily inferred that O is the origin since X and Y axis are shown and the point where X and Y axis intersect is the origin. We dont have to suppose anything here. So, IMO the answer is B.
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05 Aug 2006, 01:48
If the line doesn't originate from orgin, then what does angle r refer to? The arrows mean that the horizontal and vertical lines are the x and y axes. Cut us people at Kaplan some slack here, eh?
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05 Aug 2006, 06:15
kevincan wrote:
If the line doesn't originate from orgin, then what does angle r refer to?

we can have a line passed from x=0 and y>0 with c=d where 0<r<180.
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05 Aug 2006, 10:15
Professor wrote:
kevincan wrote:
If the line doesn't originate from orgin, then what does angle r refer to?

we can have a line passed from x=0 and y>0 with c=d where 0<r<180.

Then r would be the angle between which two line segments?
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05 Aug 2006, 12:47
kevincan wrote:
Professor wrote:
kevincan wrote:
If the line doesn't originate from orgin, then what does angle r refer to?

we can have a line passed from x=0 and y>0 with c=d where 0<r<180.

Then r would be the angle between which two line segments?

r would be between y axis and the line that we draw from y axis..
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05 Aug 2006, 15:04
The diagram would have to be a lot more detailed if that were the case! Granted, the drawing could have been more carefully done. It was not Kaplan intention to mislead with it, though.
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05 Aug 2006, 17:12
kevincan wrote:
The diagram would have to be a lot more detailed if that were the case! Granted, the drawing could have been more carefully done. It was not Kaplan intention to mislead with it, though.

agreed.

but kaplan and TPR questions are not properly designed. particularly kaplan's questions are designed to give an impression that their questions are tough and standard but they actually are poorly structured. TPR is also not free from flaws.

however, anybody can get trapped anywhere in gmat questions. cracking the gmat is not an easy job.
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05 Aug 2006, 17:51
I agree with majority and OP that this question (with the given answer by Kaplan) is misleading. Everywhere in the prep books it is said that on DS questions that have drawings and graphs you are not supposed to assume that the the graphs/pictures are drawn to scale. But apparently in order to solve this particular question the way Kaplan intended, one have to assume that the line is groing through the origin. I think they should change the wording of the question
05 Aug 2006, 17:51
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