zion wrote:

Can some please explain this.

From 1) the inequality becomes is r^2 + 2 > r^2, regardless of r being postive or negative or 0, the ineqiality holds good.

From 2) it does not say anything about p.

please explain why the answer is not A.

Ans can not be A.

Let's take r = 0 then as per ST1 p=r

So (1/p) = (1/0) which is not defined.

If we combine ST1 and ST2,

Then "r" should be greater than 0 and in this case, 1/P will always be greater than r/(r^2+2).

You can verify this by putting any value of r >0.

Hence C.

- Brajesh