How can a Q48 V41 be a 710? : Share GMAT Experience
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# How can a Q48 V41 be a 710?

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Intern
Joined: 23 Oct 2006
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How can a Q48 V41 be a 710? [#permalink]

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09 Oct 2007, 22:07
VP
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10 Oct 2007, 04:43
This guy got more questions correct and missed one or two difficult questions which decreased his score.
the others might have got the hardest ones correct even if they did more incorrect.
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10 Oct 2007, 05:19
I think there is a deviation in the total score even if the Q and V scores are the same (and vice versa). For example, I scored Q51 and V42 and ended up with a 760, while some of the other applicants have scored Q50 V42 or Q51 V41 and ended up with a 760 as well. It does not matter as most schools are aware that the standard deviation is ~ 30 points.
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10 Oct 2007, 05:28
scoring can change over time too
CEO
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10 Oct 2007, 07:20
dosa_don wrote:
I think there is a deviation in the total score even if the Q and V scores are the same (and vice versa). For example, I scored Q51 and V42 and ended up with a 760, while some of the other applicants have scored Q50 V42 or Q51 V41 and ended up with a 760 as well. It does not matter as most schools are aware that the standard deviation is ~ 30 points.

good point
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10 Oct 2007, 07:51
If you look at the old paper tests the scoring chart helps to explain this. Two people could have 48Q and one could almost be a 49, while the other could barely be above a 47. So someone at the top of each number could have a score 10-20 pts higher than the person who is at the bottom of each.

Also the percentages are changing, a 750 used to be 99% now its 98% and in a few years will probably be 95% or something like that.
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10 Oct 2007, 16:24
While I understand how a Q48 V41 could possibly be a 710 or a 720, no one here has explained how:

47Q 41V is a 720
48Q 40V is a 720

45Q 41V is a 710
46Q 41V is a 710
47Q 40V is a 710
48Q 39V is a 710

Again, how can a Q48 V41 be a 710 given these scores, most of which are very recent!
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10 Oct 2007, 16:31
You are putting way to much thought into this. He may have just made a typo or maybe he lied, either way does it really matter?
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Re: How can a Q48 V41 be a 710? [#permalink]

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10 Oct 2007, 23:01
wlfred once mentioned that one single question can make difference...
fortunately or unfortunately do no..
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12 Oct 2007, 07:50
riverripper wrote:
You are putting way to much thought into this. He may have just made a typo or maybe he lied, either way does it really matter?

No, these results, in my opinion, clearly show that the GMAT is a highly subjective exam, at the high end at least. Their algorithm is not designed to accurately handle anything over a 700, again, in my opinion.
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12 Oct 2007, 08:46
I guess you are referring to my score here. To be honest I wouldn't have a clue ... I suspect I took my test before a major percentile shift ? I did it in Mid June. I have seen others get a 710 with 48 / 40 split since then.

NFT500 wrote:
While I understand how a Q48 V41 could possibly be a 710 or a 720, no one here has explained how:

48Q 40V is a 720

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19 Oct 2007, 07:35
FWIW, I got a 720 with a 48/41 split.

Seriously, don't worry too much about the combined score.
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20 Oct 2007, 08:31
could it be related to the amount of experimental questions that are not counted? I think that could have something to do with it.
20 Oct 2007, 08:31
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# How can a Q48 V41 be a 710?

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