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21 Aug 2011, 10:25

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is (k+1)(k+2)(k+3) divisible by 4?
a)k is divisible by 8
b)(k+1)/3 is odd

i dnt have any problem in statement 1 but in case of statement 2, i am confused b/w two ways.
one is-
if (k+1)/3 is odd, it means k+1 is odd...furthermore k is even
since even numbers comprises of 0 also, therefore the statement is insufficient

the second is-
k=2, (k+1)/3=(2+1)/3=1 which is odd
k=8, (k+1)/3=(8+1)/3=3 which is odd
and so on...considering this method, we can deduce k as either of {2, 8, 14, 20, 26...} for which the above expression is satisfied....

plz help
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Re: DS-help required [#permalink]

21 Aug 2011, 10:46

K+1/3 is odd ,
Take for instance K+1 = 9 , hence k+1/3 is odd (3) but k=8, hence 9*10*11 is NOT divisible by 4.
but if K+1=15 , k will be 14 and 15*16*17 is divisible by 4 . Hence 2 different answers , NOT sufficient.

Verbal GMAT Forum Moderator

Status: Preparing for the another shot...!

Joined: 03 Feb 2011

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Re: DS-help required [#permalink]

21 Aug 2011, 10:50

thnx man...came to knw where i was missing
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Re: DS-help required [#permalink] 21 Aug 2011, 10:50

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