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is (k+1)(k+2)(k+3) divisible by 4? a)k is divisible by 8 b)(k+1)/3 is odd
i dnt have any problem in statement 1 but in case of statement 2, i am confused b/w two ways. one is- if (k+1)/3 is odd, it means k+1 is odd...furthermore k is even since even numbers comprises of 0 also, therefore the statement is insufficient
the second is- k=2, (k+1)/3=(2+1)/3=1 which is odd k=8, (k+1)/3=(8+1)/3=3 which is odd and so on...considering this method, we can deduce k as either of {2, 8, 14, 20, 26...} for which the above expression is satisfied....
plz help
Archived Topic
Hi there,
Archived GMAT Club Tests question - no more replies possible.
K+1/3 is odd , Take for instance K+1 = 9 , hence k+1/3 is odd (3) but k=8, hence 9*10*11 is NOT divisible by 4. but if K+1=15 , k will be 14 and 15*16*17 is divisible by 4 . Hence 2 different answers , NOT sufficient.