Americans' love affair with the Mustang is readily apparent: few Americans have been knon to have driven it
for the first time without taking it out for a another spin.
A. few Americans have been known to have driven it
B. few having been known to drive it
C. few Americans have been known to drive it
D. it has been driven by few Americans
E. few Americans having driven itHi Guys,
This is a good opportunity to look at what the real difference between "to drive" and "to have driven" is.to+base verb (V1) is not a verb, but (as many of you know) an infinitive. Because it is not a verb, it has no time.
to+have+V3 is the perfect infinitive. This is a structure that indicates the past in an infinitive.So...
Joe is known to be a good student = We know (in the present) that Joe is a good student (in the present).
Joe is known to have been a good student = We know (in the present) that Joe was a good student (in the past).
So let's look at the answer choices one by one:
A. few Americans have been known to have driven it"To have driven" indicates that Americans drove the Mustang in the past. But the sentences is talking about a present-day phenomenon.
B. few having been known to drive itError in Ellipses! "Few" indicates "few Americans," but the word "Americans" appears nowhere in the sentence! At the beginning of the sentence, we get Americans' -- the possessive, not the noun!
C. few Americans have been known to drive it"To drive" correctly indicates "to drive (in the present)."
D. it has been driven by few Americans"...driven by Americans" is passive voice-- as long as the doer is present, active voice should be used.
E. few Americans having driven it We have lost the intended meaning. The sentences wanted to indicate what is "known".
(More on comparisons in SC Lesson 6 and on ellipses in Lesson 9 at gmaxonline!)
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