gmark wrote:

Hi Gmat Tiger,

I am not saying your explanation in the link is wrong but there is something I don't understand. You state that the number can not be divisible by any factor because according to the formula (2^50 x 50!)/ factor + 1/factor will always result in a non integer number?

Imagine that instead of h(50) we calculate h(8): (2^4 x 4!)/factor + 1/factor. According to your theory whatever is the factor the result will always be not integer. But if you try the factor 5 the result is an integer (385/5 = 77).

I am not sure that I understood your approach and so far I have not solved the problem in any other way, but I would like to know if there is something that I am missing.

thx

I did not quite understand the red part.

but for me you are talking beyond the scope of the question.

[h(8)+1] and [h(100)+1] look similar but they are different issues and the rule may not be applied to h(8)+1.

and I even did not say that the rule applied to any function. stick to [h(100)+1].

Take a time and go agin and understand the concept. you will get it as i did so.

In fact, I always tried to skip this question as it was always difficult for me. this time I tried so many minuets (almost 30) to solve it, understanding the concept.

_________________

Verbal: http://gmatclub.com/forum/new-to-the-verbal-forum-please-read-this-first-77546.html

Math: http://gmatclub.com/forum/new-to-the-math-forum-please-read-this-first-77764.html

Gmat: http://gmatclub.com/forum/everything-you-need-to-prepare-for-the-gmat-revised-77983.html

GT