Generic drugs contain exactly the same active ingredients as

The OA is B. Here is the OE:

the conclusion of the argument has two parts: (1) that generic drugs are just as effective as their brand-name counterparts and (2) that generic drugs cost less than their brand-name counterparts.

The Correct Answer is B. The effectiveness of a drug depends not only on its having certain active ingredients but also on the drug being correctly manufactured so that it has the right composition. (B) tells us that generic drugs are no more likely to be defective in their composition than brand-name drugs are, thereby strengthening the arguement for part (1) of the conclusion.

The OE eliminates (A) on the following basis: We already know that generic drugs contain the same active ingredients as their brand-name counterparts. So the fact that the ingredients used in the manufacture of brand-name drugs are no more expensive than those used in the manufacture of generic drugs provides no additional evidence concerning the effectiveness of the generic drug. And A clearly does not add support for the conclusion that generic drugs cost less than their brand-name counterparts.

My follow Up Questions:
I think AC "A" does provide support for the conclusion that generic drugs cost less than their brand-name. Here is why:
Total Cost of Drugs = Cost of production of drug [ingredientcost+development cost+marketing] + MarkUp.

But based on the premise [generic drugs contain exactly the same active ingredient as their brand-name counterparts, but cost much less to develop, produce and market] we now know the "cost of production" is the same. This premise in conjuction with the above equation proves that its the "markup" of brand name drugs that is hiking up the price. Therefore it supports the conclusion that generic drugs cost less.

What is wrong with this logic? How could the author say that AC A doesnt add support to the conclusion that it is generic drugs cost less than brand-name drugs.

Initial Thoughts

The author’s belief is that generic drugs are equally as effective (and way cheaper) than brand-name drugs. He supports this conclusion by stating that the ingredients are EXACTLY the same. So to him, it must be obvious that same ingredient means same efficacy. This is a pretty weak argument.

It’s like saying: This gourmet cake is made with the same recipe as this amatuer cake, which also costs WAY less. Because the recipes used are the same, both cakes will taste/be practically the same. What about craftmanship? What if the amateur cake over whipped the batter? What if the amateur cake used worse ingredients?

Coming back to the topic, we’re looking for an answer choice that eliminates the possibility that there are other factors that could differentiate generic from brand name drugs (manufacturing process? ingredient quality?).

Which of of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument?

A) The ingredients used in the manufacture of brand-name drugs cost no more than the ingredients used to produce their generic counterparts.
This is basically a repeat of the premise and doesn’t add additional information.

B) Generic drugs are no more likely than brand-name drugs to suffer from defects in composition.
Ah, this could be it. This answer choice strengthens our argument by ensuring us that the defective cases are the same.

C) Generic drugs are just as likely as brand-name drugs to be readily available in pharmacies.
OK, the availability has no affect on the effectiveness of the drugs. This is an out of scope answer.

D) The higher costs of brand-name drugs underwrite drugs companies' heavy investment in research.
What does research have to do with effectiveness of the generic v. brand drugs? None.

E) Because of advertising, doctors frequently prescribe brand-name drugs by their brand name, rather than by their chemical name.
Again, no effect on conclusion.

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