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Is it: - It does not have a good taste? (seems correct)

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vinay3
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Is it: - It does not have a good taste? (seems correct) [#permalink] New post   02 Oct 2010, 12:50
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Is it:

- It does not have a good taste? (seems correct)

or:

- It does not has a good taste? (seems awkward)

If it is the former, how come the singular "it" is used with plural "have" (they have, it has)?



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Re: Is it: - It does not have a good taste? (seems correct) [#permalink] New post   02 Oct 2010, 19:13
Have can be both singular and plural
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Re: Is it: - It does not have a good taste? (seems correct) [#permalink] New post   03 Oct 2010, 01:59
you dont use HAS with DOES in the same sentnece, use HAVE
other examples when you use HAVE for singular subjects is when you must use the bare form of the verb, in this case that would be Have
Ex: He is able to have a good score
Ex: He will have a good score
Otherwise always use has with singular subjects, Have cannot be used for singular subjects
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Re: Is it: - It does not have a good taste? (seems correct) [#permalink] New post   05 Oct 2010, 14:15
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This is a great question!

"Does have" is similar to "have been" or "is walking" or "will arrive" in that they are all compound verbs. As a result, you only conjugate the first word to match the subject. (He "does" have / they "do" have.)

Conjugating "have" in "does have" would be analogous to saying "I am walk" rather than the correct form "I am walking."

All that said, given the opportunity I would write "It tastes good" before I would write "It does have a good taste."

Brett



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Re: Is it: - It does not have a good taste? (seems correct) [#permalink]
05 Oct 2010, 14:15
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