darrrrkhorse wrote:
Dear Mike,
Your point is well taken and in future I will try my best not to repeat the mistakes pointed above. My above reply was written on a mobile. Any how, I accept my mistake and I will try that it doesn't repeat.
Beginning with your one liner, which states that "How you do anything is how you do everything," I suppose that in your chiding you wrote " Some of the people on GC right now might someday
by your bosses, your colleagues, your partners, your suppliers, your customers, etc. "
I suppose that by writing "by" above you meant to write "be". Please correct me if I am wrong.
Your first post mentions the following-:
"There is a rule, a very clear rule, that if the same pronoun appears in the same clause, it must refer to the same antecedent. By same, we mean the all the forms of a single personal pronoun (they, them, their, theirs). In that
MGMAT sentence, in the "which" clause, we have a "they" referring to one antecedent and a "them" referring to another. This is strictly forbidden. It doesn't matter than we can use logic to figure out what refers to what. Figuring out things with logic doesn't fix the fact that this is an irredeemable error. "
In above reply you have mentioned they, them, their and theirs as single personal pronoun.First, I had a doubt that these personal pronouns are plural as per my knowledge. If I am wrong in thinking so then please correct me. Second, I wanted to know which pronouns are considered in one group, so that if same group pronouns are used in a single sentence then I can check that same group pronouns are referring to the same antecedent or not.
Thanks for your support and valuable guidance. I will keep a note of all the learning's received in this post for future.
Regards.
Dear
darrrrkhorse,
I'm happy to respond.
Yes, you are correct about by/be, a typo on my part. None of us are perfect. No one is perfect and it is always important to strive to do one's best.
Ah, now I understand the question you are asking. The pronoun {
they, them, their, theirs) are of course
grammatically plural, as are (
we, us, our, ours) and "
these" and "
those" ---- all plural in the grammatical sense, in the sense that their antecedents must be plural things.
I was using the word "single" in a very different sense, not at all referring to the grammar idea of singular/plural. I was trying to communicate that naive students might look at "
they" and "
their" and "
them" as three different pronouns, but at a deep logical level, these different words are all part of one and the same pronoun. It is a "single" pronoun in the sense of being one thing, not three different things. All of the personal pronouns have a variety of forms (subjective, objective, possessive), but beneath these appearances, each pronoun is a single unity. This is an idea that operates on a quite different level from the grammatical classification of some pronouns as singular and plural.
Does this make sense?
Mike