The American Medical Association has argued that the rapidly : GMAT Sentence Correction (SC)
Check GMAT Club Decision Tracker for the Latest School Decision Releases http://gmatclub.com/AppTrack

 It is currently 17 Jan 2017, 12:57

### GMAT Club Daily Prep

#### Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.

Customized
for You

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Track

every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance

Practice
Pays

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

# Events & Promotions

###### Events & Promotions in June
Open Detailed Calendar

# The American Medical Association has argued that the rapidly

 new topic post reply Question banks Downloads My Bookmarks Reviews Important topics
Author Message
TAGS:

### Hide Tags

Senior Manager
Joined: 22 Feb 2004
Posts: 347
Followers: 1

Kudos [?]: 30 [0], given: 0

The American Medical Association has argued that the rapidly [#permalink]

### Show Tags

17 Sep 2004, 20:23
00:00

Difficulty:

(N/A)

Question Stats:

50% (01:34) correct 50% (00:37) wrong based on 4 sessions

### HideShow timer Statistics

The American Medical Association has argued that the rapidly rising costs associated with malpractice litigation are driving doctors from the profession and that reform of the tort system is imperative for bringing malpractice insurance premiums under control.
(A) that reform of the tort system is imperative for bringing malpractice insurance premiums
(B) that reform of the tort system is imperative if malpractice insurance premiums are to be brought
(C) that reform of the tort system is imperative to bring malpractice insurance premiums
(D) reform of the tort system is necessary in bringing malpractice insurance premiums
(E) the tort system needs to be reformed so that malpractice insurance premiums are brought
If you have any questions
you can ask an expert
New!
Director
Joined: 05 May 2004
Posts: 577
Location: San Jose, CA
Followers: 2

Kudos [?]: 59 [0], given: 0

Re: SC from 885sc [#permalink]

### Show Tags

17 Sep 2004, 20:34
Will go for C
M had argued that X and that reform of Y will do Z ... parallel
imperative to ... correct idiom
Senior Manager
Joined: 22 Feb 2004
Posts: 347
Followers: 1

Kudos [?]: 30 [0], given: 0

### Show Tags

17 Sep 2004, 21:05
I know it's between A and C..but i have seen the use of "imperative for" in formal written engligh..hence Iam confused that why C is correct and A is incorrect. Where have you read that "imperative to" is the right idiom.
GMAT Club Legend
Joined: 15 Dec 2003
Posts: 4302
Followers: 40

Kudos [?]: 429 [0], given: 0

### Show Tags

17 Sep 2004, 21:08
C it is
imperative for + gerund --> ie imperative for the bringing of...
or
imperative to + infinitive --> imperative to bring...
_________________

Best Regards,

Paul

Senior Manager
Joined: 22 Feb 2004
Posts: 347
Followers: 1

Kudos [?]: 30 [0], given: 0

### Show Tags

17 Sep 2004, 21:16
Paul, can you be kind enough to explain this in detail? I have seen this kind of explanation by you in the past also, but havent been able to grasp it completely.
Many a times I get confused between " to something" and " for ....ing" stuff..
GMAT Club Legend
Joined: 15 Dec 2003
Posts: 4302
Followers: 40

Kudos [?]: 429 [1] , given: 0

### Show Tags

17 Sep 2004, 22:43
1
KUDOS
Certain idioms can have 2 forms:
1- Good quality fodder is imperative for the raising of farm animals
2- In order to raise farm animals, it is imperative to have good quality fodder

1- cause + imperative for + effect(gerund)
2- effect + imperative to + cause(infinitive)

Applied to the sentence at hand:
[...] reform of the tort system is imperative to bring malpractice insurance premiums under control

As can be seen, C has the same format as idiom 2- "imperative to". A simply does not follow the rule and introduces a present participle instead of a gerund(-ing form equivalent to a noun).
_________________

Best Regards,

Paul

Senior Manager
Joined: 22 Jun 2004
Posts: 393
Location: Bangalore, India
Followers: 1

Kudos [?]: 8 [0], given: 0

Re: SC from 885sc [#permalink]

### Show Tags

18 Sep 2004, 06:10
I am getting it as C.

It is between A & C. A seems a bit elongated.

OA pls..

crackgmat750 wrote:
The American Medical Association has argued that the rapidly rising costs associated with malpractice litigation are driving doctors from the profession and that reform of the tort system is imperative for bringing malpractice insurance premiums under control.
(A) that reform of the tort system is imperative for bringing malpractice insurance premiums
(B) that reform of the tort system is imperative if malpractice insurance premiums are to be brought
(C) that reform of the tort system is imperative to bring malpractice insurance premiums
(D) reform of the tort system is necessary in bringing malpractice insurance premiums
(E) the tort system needs to be reformed so that malpractice insurance premiums are brought

_________________

Awaiting response,

Thnx & Rgds,
Chandra

Senior Manager
Joined: 22 Feb 2004
Posts: 347
Followers: 1

Kudos [?]: 30 [0], given: 0

### Show Tags

18 Sep 2004, 07:24
Paul wrote:
Certain idioms can have 2 forms:
1- Good quality fodder is imperative for the raising of farm animals
2- In order to raise farm animals, it is imperative to have good quality fodder

1- cause + imperative for + effect(gerund)
2- effect + imperative to + cause(infinitive)

Applied to the sentence at hand:
[...] reform of the tort system is imperative to bring malpractice insurance premiums under control

As can be seen, C has the same format as idiom 2- "imperative to". A simply does not follow the rule and introduces a present participle instead of a gerund(-ing form equivalent to a noun).

Paul, thanks a lot. Which are other idioms which come into your mind where this rule applies.
Director
Joined: 20 Jul 2004
Posts: 593
Followers: 2

Kudos [?]: 124 [0], given: 0

### Show Tags

18 Sep 2004, 08:21
Paul wrote:
Certain idioms can have 2 forms:
1- Good quality fodder is imperative for the raising of farm animals
2- In order to raise farm animals, it is imperative to have good quality fodder

1- cause + imperative for + effect(gerund)
2- effect + imperative to + cause(infinitive)

Applied to the sentence at hand:
[...] reform of the tort system is imperative to bring malpractice insurance premiums under control

As can be seen, C has the same format as idiom 2- "imperative to". A simply does not follow the rule and introduces a present participle instead of a gerund(-ing form equivalent to a noun).

Paul,
I understood the for+gerund/to-infinitive part, but am doubtful about the casue-effect part in statement(2). To understand clearly, let me try to rephrase the original sentence like you did.

In the original sentence,
cause = reform of the tort system
effect = bringing malpractice insurance premiums under control

As you said,
2 - effect + imperative to + cause(infinitive)
which makes it
2 - Bringing malpractice insurance premiums under control is imperative to reform the tort system

The above 2 senetence is not what is given in Q. I think it should be
cause + imperative to + infinitive effect

The case becomes differenct, if you throw an "in order to".
In order to effect + imperative to + infinitive cause
2 - In order to bring malpractice insurance premiums under control , it is imperative to reform the tort system

But "in order to" is missing in the option C. What do you think?
GMAT Club Legend
Joined: 15 Dec 2003
Posts: 4302
Followers: 40

Kudos [?]: 429 [0], given: 0

### Show Tags

18 Sep 2004, 21:39
Hardworker, thanks for correcting me. I was looking at this over and over and I believe I did mix up cause/effect in the "imperative to + infinitive" example. The addition of "In order to" does invert the cause/effect positions. My fodder example would then be changed to:

2- Having good fodder is imperative to raise quality farm animals

This follows your example:
cause + imperative to + effect(infinitive)

Introduction of "in order to" would automatically invert the effect to be at the beginning of the sentence. Although it is still good, it did not demonstrate the differences b/w the 2 idioms. The point is that either idioms could be used but it just depends on whether either are properly written. As you can see, (A) uses present participle instead of a gerund and is thus wrong.
_________________

Best Regards,

Paul

Senior Manager
Joined: 22 Feb 2004
Posts: 347
Followers: 1

Kudos [?]: 30 [0], given: 0

### Show Tags

20 Sep 2004, 19:21
OA is C. That's the reason I was asking paul why that is correct.
I still find the explanation confusing and will instead..try to memorize this rule.
20 Sep 2004, 19:21
Similar topics Replies Last post
Similar
Topics:
Medical ethicists have argued... 0 28 Oct 2016, 10:44
The American Medical Association has argued that the rapidly 6 09 May 2008, 00:58
A report by the American Medical Association indicatd that a 3 25 Jan 2008, 18:06
The American Medical Association has argued that the rapidly 2 02 Nov 2007, 08:06
688) The American Medical Association has argued that the 1 15 May 2007, 07:05
Display posts from previous: Sort by

# The American Medical Association has argued that the rapidly

 new topic post reply Question banks Downloads My Bookmarks Reviews Important topics

 Powered by phpBB © phpBB Group and phpBB SEO Kindly note that the GMAT® test is a registered trademark of the Graduate Management Admission Council®, and this site has neither been reviewed nor endorsed by GMAC®.