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The American Medical Association has argued that the rapidly

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The American Medical Association has argued that the rapidly [#permalink] New post 17 Sep 2004, 20:23
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A
B
C
D
E

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The American Medical Association has argued that the rapidly rising costs associated with malpractice litigation are driving doctors from the profession and that reform of the tort system is imperative for bringing malpractice insurance premiums under control.
(A) that reform of the tort system is imperative for bringing malpractice insurance premiums
(B) that reform of the tort system is imperative if malpractice insurance premiums are to be brought
(C) that reform of the tort system is imperative to bring malpractice insurance premiums
(D) reform of the tort system is necessary in bringing malpractice insurance premiums
(E) the tort system needs to be reformed so that malpractice insurance premiums are brought
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Re: SC from 885sc [#permalink] New post 17 Sep 2004, 20:34
Will go for C
M had argued that X and that reform of Y will do Z ... parallel
imperative to ... correct idiom
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 [#permalink] New post 17 Sep 2004, 21:05
I know it's between A and C..but i have seen the use of "imperative for" in formal written engligh..hence Iam confused that why C is correct and A is incorrect. Where have you read that "imperative to" is the right idiom.
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 [#permalink] New post 17 Sep 2004, 21:08
C it is
imperative for + gerund --> ie imperative for the bringing of...
or
imperative to + infinitive --> imperative to bring...
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 [#permalink] New post 17 Sep 2004, 21:16
Paul, can you be kind enough to explain this in detail? I have seen this kind of explanation by you in the past also, but havent been able to grasp it completely.
Many a times I get confused between " to something" and " for ....ing" stuff..
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 [#permalink] New post 17 Sep 2004, 22:43
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Certain idioms can have 2 forms:
1- Good quality fodder is imperative for the raising of farm animals
2- In order to raise farm animals, it is imperative to have good quality fodder

1- cause + imperative for + effect(gerund)
2- effect + imperative to + cause(infinitive)

Applied to the sentence at hand:
[...] reform of the tort system is imperative to bring malpractice insurance premiums under control

As can be seen, C has the same format as idiom 2- "imperative to". A simply does not follow the rule and introduces a present participle instead of a gerund(-ing form equivalent to a noun).
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Re: SC from 885sc [#permalink] New post 18 Sep 2004, 06:10
I am getting it as C.

It is between A & C. A seems a bit elongated.

OA pls..

crackgmat750 wrote:
The American Medical Association has argued that the rapidly rising costs associated with malpractice litigation are driving doctors from the profession and that reform of the tort system is imperative for bringing malpractice insurance premiums under control.
(A) that reform of the tort system is imperative for bringing malpractice insurance premiums
(B) that reform of the tort system is imperative if malpractice insurance premiums are to be brought
(C) that reform of the tort system is imperative to bring malpractice insurance premiums
(D) reform of the tort system is necessary in bringing malpractice insurance premiums
(E) the tort system needs to be reformed so that malpractice insurance premiums are brought

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 [#permalink] New post 18 Sep 2004, 07:24
Paul wrote:
Certain idioms can have 2 forms:
1- Good quality fodder is imperative for the raising of farm animals
2- In order to raise farm animals, it is imperative to have good quality fodder

1- cause + imperative for + effect(gerund)
2- effect + imperative to + cause(infinitive)

Applied to the sentence at hand:
[...] reform of the tort system is imperative to bring malpractice insurance premiums under control

As can be seen, C has the same format as idiom 2- "imperative to". A simply does not follow the rule and introduces a present participle instead of a gerund(-ing form equivalent to a noun).


Paul, thanks a lot. Which are other idioms which come into your mind where this rule applies.
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 [#permalink] New post 18 Sep 2004, 08:21
Paul wrote:
Certain idioms can have 2 forms:
1- Good quality fodder is imperative for the raising of farm animals
2- In order to raise farm animals, it is imperative to have good quality fodder

1- cause + imperative for + effect(gerund)
2- effect + imperative to + cause(infinitive)

Applied to the sentence at hand:
[...] reform of the tort system is imperative to bring malpractice insurance premiums under control

As can be seen, C has the same format as idiom 2- "imperative to". A simply does not follow the rule and introduces a present participle instead of a gerund(-ing form equivalent to a noun).

Paul,
I understood the for+gerund/to-infinitive part, but am doubtful about the casue-effect part in statement(2). To understand clearly, let me try to rephrase the original sentence like you did.

In the original sentence,
cause = reform of the tort system
effect = bringing malpractice insurance premiums under control

As you said,
2 - effect + imperative to + cause(infinitive)
which makes it
2 - Bringing malpractice insurance premiums under control is imperative to reform the tort system

The above 2 senetence is not what is given in Q. I think it should be
cause + imperative to + infinitive effect

The case becomes differenct, if you throw an "in order to".
In order to effect + imperative to + infinitive cause
2 - In order to bring malpractice insurance premiums under control , it is imperative to reform the tort system

But "in order to" is missing in the option C. What do you think?
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 [#permalink] New post 18 Sep 2004, 21:39
Hardworker, thanks for correcting me. I was looking at this over and over and I believe I did mix up cause/effect in the "imperative to + infinitive" example. The addition of "In order to" does invert the cause/effect positions. My fodder example would then be changed to:

2- Having good fodder is imperative to raise quality farm animals

This follows your example:
cause + imperative to + effect(infinitive)

Introduction of "in order to" would automatically invert the effect to be at the beginning of the sentence. Although it is still good, it did not demonstrate the differences b/w the 2 idioms. The point is that either idioms could be used but it just depends on whether either are properly written. As you can see, (A) uses present participle instead of a gerund and is thus wrong.
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 [#permalink] New post 20 Sep 2004, 19:21
OA is C. That's the reason I was asking paul why that is correct.
I still find the explanation confusing and will instead..try to memorize this rule.:)
  [#permalink] 20 Sep 2004, 19:21
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