I have a doubt here
Question says :- however, this finding does very little to show that "COMPUTER USE" tends to reduce television viewing time, since ____
In option "C" we know computer OWNERS do not watch TV too often, but nothing has been said about "COMPUTER USE" by them.
Option "E" specifies that "COMPUTER USE" leaves people with more leisurely time FOR WATCHING TV.
"E" is a serious contender
Initially I also thought E is the answer, but OA was different than what I thought
After spending lot of time, I understand why the only answer is C and E does not even come near.
My reasoning is...
We have 3 events:
E1. television watching time
E2. Growing popularity of computers (this is a real event)
E3. Declining in E1 , i.e., decline in television watching time (this is not a real event because, in the first statement it is mentioned that '....predicted to result in a corresponding decline....
Conclusion is E2 causes E3.
Task: to prove that E2 does not cause E3.
In this case, instead of trying to break the relation between E2 & E3, it would be better if we can successfully prove that E2 is not at all dependent E1.
Now, which option choice tells us the non-existent-relation between E1 & E2?? It is C. Hence the answer is C.
C says , some people have long been known to spend less time on television watching. It implies that even if they DON'T
use computers they are not going to watch
TV. Hence, these people are not going to affect TV watching time but just affect growth of computer usage.
This is really tricky question...at least for me! If it is for you as well, and this post helped u, give me kudos, please