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Re: D01-16 [#permalink]
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Ram1987 wrote:
1^-1 = 1 ? Please explain.


Negative powers:
\(a^{-n}=\frac{1}{a^n}\), hence \(1^{(-1)}=\frac{1}{1^1}=1\).

Theory on Exponents: math-number-theory-88376.html
Tips on Exponents: exponents-and-roots-on-the-gmat-tips-and-hints-174993.html

All DS Exponents questions to practice: search.php?search_id=tag&tag_id=39
All PS Exponents questions to practice: search.php?search_id=tag&tag_id=60

Tough and tricky DS exponents and roots questions with detailed solutions: tough-and-tricky-exponents-and-roots-questions-125967.html
Tough and tricky PS exponents and roots questions with detailed solutions: tough-and-tricky-exponents-and-roots-questions-125956.html
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Re: D01-16 [#permalink]
It seems I have missed some basics of factorials. I was surprised to find out that (-1)!=-1. I was thinking it is undefined.
If (-1)!=-1 is it correct to assume the following:
(-2)! = 2 = -1 X -2
(-3)! = -6 = -1 X -2 X -3
(-4)! = 24 = -1 X -2 X -3 X -4
(-5)! = -120 = -1 X -2 X -3 X -4 X -5
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Re: D01-16 [#permalink]
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Van4ez wrote:
It seems I have missed some basics of factorials. I was surprised to find out that (-1)!=-1. I was thinking it is undefined.
If (-1)!=-1 is it correct to assume the following:
(-2)! = 2 = -1 X -2
(-3)! = -6 = -1 X -2 X -3
(-4)! = 24 = -1 X -2 X -3 X -4
(-5)! = -120 = -1 X -2 X -3 X -4 X -5


No, that;s not correct at all. Factorial is defined only for non-negative integers: the factorial of a non-negative integer n, denoted by n!, is the product of all positive integers less than or equal to n.

In the original question we don't have (-1)! (which would be undefined), we have (|-1|)!. Notice that -1 there is in modulus sign: (|-1|)! = (1)! = 1.

Hope it's clear.
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Re: D01-16 [#permalink]
Thank you, Bunuel, my fault. This is a good example why I couldn't reach my desired score:)
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Re: D01-16 [#permalink]
I think this is a high-quality question and I agree with explanation. Best question tests the concept of absolute value, exponents and factorials
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Re: D01-16 [#permalink]
The explanation says "any non-zero number to the power of 0 is 1."

So, is \(0^0 \neq 1\)?
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Re: D01-16 [#permalink]
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coreyander wrote:
The explanation says "any non-zero number to the power of 0 is 1."

So, is \(0^0 \neq 1\)?


0^0, in some sources equals to 1, some mathematicians say it's undefined. But you won't need this for the GMAT because the case of 0^0 is not tested on the GMAT.
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Re: D01-16 [#permalink]
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I have edited the question and the solution by adding more details to enhance its clarity. I hope it is now easier to understand.
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Re: D01-16 [#permalink]
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