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Idiom question

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Idiom question [#permalink] New post 11 Jun 2004, 21:57
Quiz:
1) Charles was forbiden (to enter, from entering) the Temple of Doom.
2) He was also prohibited (to visit, from visiting) the Garden of earthly delights.
3) Dean and Jerry (both had their, each had his) own take on why the two split up.

Please explain the choices and why :roll:
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 [#permalink] New post 11 Jun 2004, 22:05
(1) ---> to enter

(2) --> from visiting

(3) --> each had his

Explanations:

(1) --> Idiomatic to say forbid to do something. There is no logic here - it is just usage
(2) again an idiom
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Re: Idiom question [#permalink] New post 11 Jun 2004, 22:07
Charles was forbiden from entering the Temple of Doom.
He was also prohibited to visit the Garden of earthly delights.
Dean and Jerry both had their own take on why the two split up.

I think there is no concrete explaination for idiomatic usage. It is just the language widely used.

Please confirm...
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 [#permalink] New post 12 Jun 2004, 00:16
Vithal is correct on all the three questions but I am still confused. Lets take questions 1 & 2.
If you say "...forbiden to enter the..." then by the same logic the next one should be "...prohibited to enter the...". But here its reversed. Thats the point I am trying to understand. Why?

Similarly for answering question3, lets see this following statementc: "Barbara and Neil both went to the same highschool". So here "and" is combining Barbara and Neil which forms a compound subject and hence we use "both" to address them. Going by the same logic for question3 it should be: "Dean and Jerry both had their own take..." Why is this different. Sorry for being so naive but I really want to understand the subtle differences.
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 [#permalink] New post 12 Jun 2004, 09:11
tapsemi wrote:
Vithal is correct on all the three questions but I am still confused. Lets take questions 1 & 2.
If you say "...forbiden to enter the..." then by the same logic the next one should be "...prohibited to enter the...". But here its reversed. Thats the point I am trying to understand. Why?

Similarly for answering question3, lets see this following statementc: "Barbara and Neil both went to the same highschool". So here "and" is combining Barbara and Neil which forms a compound subject and hence we use "both" to address them. Going by the same logic for question3 it should be: "Dean and Jerry both had their own take..." Why is this different. Sorry for being so naive but I really want to understand the subtle differences.


Tapsemi,

1&2 are examples of idiomatic usage, the standard way in which these words are used to make sentences. If you look in Webster's or any other dictionary under these verbs, you'll see examples of their usage in sentences.

The correct idiomatic usage is indeed 'prohibit to do smth.' and 'forbidden from doing smth'

3 is simply redundant. 'both had their own', 'own' pertains to smth that someone has in his sole possession. Ex. this treasure is my own. From the sentence you posted, it looks like Dean and Jerry had different opinions about smth. Therefore, Dean had his own opinion, and Jerry had his own opinion. So, 'each had his own'

I hope I was able to help at least a little. :-D
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 [#permalink] New post 12 Jun 2004, 09:59
Thanks SmashingGrace, I got the point :P
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 [#permalink] New post 29 Jun 2004, 17:55
SmashingGrace wrote:

The correct idiomatic usage is indeed 'prohibit to do smth.' and 'forbidden from doing smth'

I hope I was able to help at least a little. :-D


Grace,
I was looking at some old posts, it seems u got the idioms exchanged.

- ash
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  [#permalink] 29 Jun 2004, 17:55
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