Vithal is correct on all the three questions but I am still confused. Lets take questions 1 & 2.
If you say "...forbiden to enter the..." then by the same logic the next one should be "...prohibited to enter the...". But here its reversed. Thats the point I am trying to understand. Why?
Similarly for answering question3, lets see this following statementc: "Barbara and Neil both went to the same highschool". So here "and" is combining Barbara and Neil which forms a compound subject and hence we use "both" to address them. Going by the same logic for question3 it should be: "Dean and Jerry both had their own take..." Why is this different. Sorry for being so naive but I really want to understand the subtle differences.
1&2 are examples of idiomatic usage, the standard way in which these words are used to make sentences. If you look in Webster's or any other dictionary under these verbs, you'll see examples of their usage in sentences.
The correct idiomatic usage is indeed 'prohibit to do smth.' and 'forbidden from doing smth'
3 is simply redundant. 'both had their own', 'own' pertains to smth that someone has in his sole possession. Ex. this treasure is my own. From the sentence you posted, it looks like Dean and Jerry had different opinions about smth. Therefore, Dean had his own opinion, and Jerry had his own opinion. So, 'each had his own'
I hope I was able to help at least a little.
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