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Re: In 1675, Louis XIV established the Parisian seamstresses guild, the f [#permalink]
GMATNinja wrote:
phuongdung0204 wrote:

Hi

I read your explanation, but I still don't understand your view so clearly.

For this part in the passage " The seamstresses, however, viewed guild membership as a mark of independence from the patriarchal family. Their guild was composed not of family units but of individual women who enjoyed unusual legal and economic privileges".

I thought that seamstresses considered guild membership as a mark of independence and the seamstresses enjoyed unusual legal and economic privileges.

=> There is no part said that they "did not enjoy the same economic and legal privileges that members of the seamstresses’ guild"

Why we can not choose E, because in the passage, these seamstresses viewed guild membership as a mark of independence and the choice E said "They felt their status as working women gave them a certain degree of independence"

I'm really confused with this question.

Really hope that you can explain a bit more clearly.

Thank you so much.

Think about the situation before 1675: there were tailors who could join the tailors’ guild and who could employ female family members as seamstresses. These seamstresses were not members of a guild (the seamstresses' guild didn't exist yet) and were stuck in a patriarchal system where the tailor, "the head of the household", was in charge.

So perhaps those seamstresses felt like they deserved independence, but simply working as a seamstress under a tailor didn't GIVE them any independence--they were stuck in the patriarchal family system. In other words, being a working woman didn't give the seamstresses any independence, so (E) has to be eliminated.

Here's another chunk of the passage:

Quote:
The seamstresses, however, viewed guild membership as a mark of independence from the patriarchal family.

This part implies that, starting in 1675, those seamstresses could become members of the seamstresses' guild and could thus attain some degree of independence from the patriarchal family. But if those seamstresses continued working for a male head of household and did not join the seamstresses' guild, then they would not have attained the unusual legal and economic privileges enjoyed by members -- instead, they'd remain stuck under the tailor's thumb.

(D) is tricky, but it's the best choice we've got.

I hope that helps!


Thank you for your response.

I realized my mistake.

The meaning in the passage is the seamstresses felt guild membership as a mark of independence (not status as working women gave them a certain degree of independence).
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Re: In 1675, Louis XIV established the Parisian seamstresses guild, the f [#permalink]
GMATNinja wrote:

Question 1


imSKR wrote:
Quote:
1. The primary purpose of the passage is to

At the conflict’s center was the issue of whether tailors’ female relatives should be identified as family members protected by the tailors’ guild or as individuals under the jurisdiction of the seamstresses’ guild.

Quote:
A. outline a scholarly debate over the impact of the Parisian seamstresses’ guild

Why not A? the debat started after the establishment of Parisian seamstresses’ guild

Quote:
B. summarize sources of conflict between the newly created Parisian seamstresses’ guild and the tailors’ guild

the summary is only in the end. But in the passage they have discussed reasons for it.

GMATNinja

This passage tells us about the origin of the Parisian seamstresses' guild before launching into a discussion about the seamstresses' guild's conflict tailors' guild.

Let's take a closer look at (A) to see why it doesn't give the primary purpose of the passage:
Quote:
A. outline a scholarly debate over the impact of the Parisian seamstresses’ guild

For this passage to outline a scholarly debate, we'd expect to see some mention of a researcher or the results from an investigation from multiple scholars. The results from these scholars' work would be compared to give us some idea of the nature of the debate.

This passage does not have any of these things -- there is no mention of scholarly debate.

We're given information about the conflict between the two guilds, but no information about a possible scholarly debate over the impact of the seamstresses' guild. For this reason, (A) cannot be the answer to this question.

Compare this to (B):
Quote:
B. summarize sources of conflict between the newly created Parisian seamstresses’ guild and the tailors’ guild

The start of the second paragraph tells us:

    "The conflict between the guilds was not purely economic"

Later in the paragraph, we're told:

    "guild membership held very different meanings for tailors and seamstresses"

The end of the paragraph gives the summary you quote:

    "At the conflict’s center was the issue of whether tailors’ female relatives should be identified as family members protected by the tailors’ guild or as individuals under the jurisdiction of the seamstresses’ guild."

This tells us the reasons for the conflict between the two guilds. We're given this summary of the underlying reasons, or the sources, for the disagreement in the second paragraph. This is why (B) is the answer to this question.

I hope that helps!

­GMATNinja Can you  please explain why C is not the answer ?
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Re: In 1675, Louis XIV established the Parisian seamstresses guild, the f [#permalink]
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Question 1


sayan640 wrote:
­GMATNinja Can you  please explain why C is not the answer ?

This passage tells us about the origin of the Parisian seamstresses' guild before launching into a discussion about the conflict between the seamstresses' guild's and the tailors' guild.

­Here's (C):

Quote:
C. describe opposing views concerning the origins of the Parisian seamstresses’ guild

In the passage, we learn that the Parisian seamstresses’ guild was established in 1675. Then we learn a whole bunch of effects that followed the creation of this guild. So we really don't get any "opposing views concerning the origins" of the guild -- as far as we know, everyone agrees on the origin story. The conflicts described in the passage are between the different guilds, not between people debating the origins of the seamstresses' guild.

Eliminate (C) for question 1.

I hope that helps!­
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In 1675, Louis XIV established the Parisian seamstresses guild, the f [#permalink]
This passage was honestly pretty vague and confusing, so I'm leaving my explanations here for personal reference, but in case it finds itself helpful to anyone else who may stumble across it:

1. This is a main idea question. The premise of the passage is in the first sentence, talking about how Louis XIV set up the seamstress's guild. However, the actual main idea is in the last sentence of the first paragraph: "Tailors resented the ascension of seamstresses to guild status; seamstresses, meanwhile, were impatient with the remaining restrictions on their right to clothe women." before then diving into examples of why. Answer choice B is the only one that matches this.

2.­ The answer can be found in the main idea: "seamstresses, meanwhile, were impatient with the remaining restrictions on their right to clothe women." A is the only answer that matches this. (Note: B is a trick answer, it sounds somewhat correct, but there's 2 problems with it. 1 is that it's too extreme in saying "exclusively", and 2 the passage only mentions that "Guild members could ... but were prohibited from producing men’s clothing", which only talks about seamstresses in guilds specifically, NOT seamstresses as a whole)

3. This is an inference question that requires going into it answer by answer:

A. Wrong, no information providing Louis's reasonings for making the guilds was ever mentioned in the passage.
B. Wrong, while seamstresses couldn't make men's clothing on their own, nothing was said about what they could do with a master tailor (a master tailor was never mentioned in the passage either).
C. Wrong, this answer is extreme. It's mentioned in the passage that tailors saw their status in the guild as an extension of being the head of their household, but that doesn't entail a total monopoly over the guild, especially considering they would hire women from their family into the guild.
D. Correct, it is mentioned in the passage that: "Their guild was composed not of family units but of individual women who enjoyed unusual legal and economic privileges.". Key word being "unusual", implying that seamstresses usually DON'T enjoy such legal and economic privileges (and it is also implied that they couldn't form their own guilds before the new policies), but with Louis's new policies that allow them to form guilds independent of the family came this abnormal freedom for seamstresses.
E. Wrong, this is a VERY TRICKY ANSWER. While seamstresses as a group are explicitly described as seeing the guild independently from the patriarchal family, this question is about those seamstresses who were specifically hired in to be in the FAMILY guild, and NOT the ones working in their own independent guild. Furthermore, it's not status as a working woman that gave seamstresses a sense of independence, but rather their ability to form their own guild away from the patriarchy.

4. The "mark of independence" line implies that there were more benefits than simply making money; seamstresses get their own freedom, and enjoy legal privileges not previously available to them. A is the answer that best describes this.­
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