I think its D.
The author is assuming that Brits from 30years ago did not make foreign travel just cuz they did not have enuff money. That may not be true. Maybe Brits from 30 years ago thot that foreign countries were not as beautiful as Britain, maybe they did not get visas at that time, we don't know
But by making that assumption D he is saying that Brits from 30 years ago always wanted foreign vacation but could not afford it and now that percentage of foreign travel is up that means Brits have more money at their disposal for vacationing.
Thirty years ago, the percentage of the British people who vacationed in foreign countries was very small compared with the large percentage of the British population who travel abroad for vacations now. Foreign travel is, and always has been, expensive from Britain. Therefore, British people must have, on average, more money to spend on vacations now than they did 30 years ago.
The argument requires assuming which one of the following?
(A) If foreign travel had been less expensive 30 years ago, British people would still not have had enough money to take vacation abroad.
(B) If travel to Britain were less expensive, more people of other countries would travel to Britain for their vacations.
(C) If the percentage of British people vacationing abroad was lower 30 years ago, then the British people of 30 years ago must have spent more money on domestic vacations.
(D) If more of the British people 30 years ago had had enough money to vacation abroad, more would have done so.
(E) If British people are now wealthier than they were 30 years ago, then they must have more money to spend on vacations now than they did 30 years ago.
I am struggling with D and E.
OA is
. Can somebody explain for me?