Hi Shikhar,
Defense attorneys have occasionally argued that their clients’ misconduct stemmed from a reaction to something ingested, but
in attributing criminal or delinquent behavior to some food allergy, the perpetrators are in effect told that they are not responsible for their actions.
In the underlined portion of the sentence, the
verb-ing modifier “in attributing…” is modifying the subject of the following clause which is “the perpetrators”. This suggests that the perpetrators perform the action of “attributing” which is illogical.
Let’s take simple examples to see how this modifier is functioning.
Reading from the red book, grandmother put the children to sleep.
Here, the
verb-ing modifier is “reading”. So, who did the action of reading? Grandmother. Since “grandmother” is the subject of the following clause, modifier “reading” is correctly modifying “grandmother”.
Now read this one.
Reading the book, the children were put to sleep by grandmother.
This sentence is not correct because the subject of the clause is now “the children” and they certainly did not do the action of “reading”.
In the same way, “perpetrators” did not do the action of “attributing” the criminal behavior. They are the ones who showed criminal behavior. Now, the “perpetrators” falls in the non-underlined portion of the sentence. Hence we must choose an answer choice that correctly refers to perpetrators. Choices A, C, and E can be eliminated alone on the modifier basis. Choice D has the idiom issue. Choice B correctly and clearly conveys the logical intended meaning of the sentence.
Hope this helps.
Thanks
Shraddha
What is this verbing modifier referred to in grammar? Is it a Verbal? If yes then gerund? Participle? I am confused. Can you please clear it out.
Also shouldn't there be an action after , but since but is a conjunction that joins independant clauses. Hence the options which has 'is' as the verb are better and out of them the one which uses attributed to wins.
Kindly guide and correct me here.