NEW HERE? LEARN MORE
closeclose
Last visit was: 02 May 2024, 21:01 It is currently 02 May 2024, 21:01
Decision Tracker
My Rewards
New posts
New comers' posts

Close
GMAT Club Daily Prep
Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.

Customized
for You

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Track
Your Progress

every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance

Practice
Pays

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History
Not interested in getting valuable practice questions and articles delivered to your email? No problem, unsubscribe here.
Go to My Error Log Learn more
Close
Request Expert Reply
Confirm Cancel

is this sentence correct

SORT BY:
Date
Kudos
Tags:
Find Similar Topics 
Show Tags
Hide Tags
avatar
rich895
Intern
Intern
Joined: 14 Aug 2012
Posts: 19
Own Kudos [?]: 1 [1]
Given Kudos: 7
Schools: McCombs EMBA"17
Send PM
is this sentence correct [#permalink] New post   15 Oct 2012, 15:21
1
Bookmarks
"Anyone who has access to do X should also have access to do Y"

I was writing an email and I stumbled on this.
"Anyone" is singular, so I used 'has' for the first part. The second part I cannot use 'has'(or should I use 'has'), so used 'have'. Is this grammatically correct. What abt parallelism? has/have
If not correct , pls explain the correct usage. Thanks
User avatar
G
mikemcgarry
Magoosh GMAT Instructor
Joined: 28 Dec 2011
Posts: 4452
Own Kudos [?]: 28590 [1]
Given Kudos: 130
Re: is this sentence correct [#permalink] New post   15 Oct 2012, 17:45
1
Kudos
Expert Reply
rich895 wrote:
"Anyone who has access to do X should also have access to do Y"

I was writing an email and I stumbled on this.
"Anyone" is singular, so I used 'has' for the first part. The second part I cannot use 'has'(or should I use 'has'), so used 'have'. Is this grammatically correct. What abt parallelism? has/have
If not correct , pls explain the correct usage. Thanks

I'm happy to help with this. :-)

Both of these verbs are correct. Both are singular ---- the verb "has" is singular, and the verb "should have" is also singular.

When we use an auxiliary verb, a "helping" verb" with a main verb in the present tense, the main verb takes its infinitive form, and the auxiliary verb reflects the "number" of the verb (i.e. whether the verb is singular or plural.)

He gives ...
He will give ...
He does give ...
He can give ...
He might give ...
He should give ...

In the first, the verb "gives" is singular. In all the others, the main verb is in the infinitive form, "give", and the correct number (i.e. singular) is reflected in the auxiliary verb (most of the auxiliary verbs don't change --- the only one that does change with number is do/does.)

Does all this make sense?

Mike :-)
avatar
rich895
Intern
Intern
Joined: 14 Aug 2012
Posts: 19
Own Kudos [?]: 1 [0]
Given Kudos: 7
Schools: McCombs EMBA"17
Send PM
Re: is this sentence correct [#permalink] New post   18 Oct 2012, 16:50
Thanks for explaining. I am not fully following.
The reason I had the doubt to begin with was..
Am I combining present tense and conditional, thereby not following the verb sequence.
Anyone who has access to do X - present tense
Should also have ... - conditional




mikemcgarry wrote:
rich895 wrote:
"Anyone who has access to do X should also have access to do Y"

I was writing an email and I stumbled on this.
"Anyone" is singular, so I used 'has' for the first part. The second part I cannot use 'has'(or should I use 'has'), so used 'have'. Is this grammatically correct. What abt parallelism? has/have
If not correct , pls explain the correct usage. Thanks

I'm happy to help with this. :-)

Both of these verbs are correct. Both are singular ---- the verb "has" is singular, and the verb "should have" is also singular.

When we use an auxiliary verb, a "helping" verb" with a main verb in the present tense, the main verb takes its infinitive form, and the auxiliary verb reflects the "number" of the verb (i.e. whether the verb is singular or plural.)

He gives ...
He will give ...
He does give ...
He can give ...
He might give ...
He should give ...

In the first, the verb "gives" is singular. In all the others, the main verb is in the infinitive form, "give", and the correct number (i.e. singular) is reflected in the auxiliary verb (most of the auxiliary verbs don't change --- the only one that does change with number is do/does.)

Does all this make sense?

Mike :-)
User avatar
G
mikemcgarry
Magoosh GMAT Instructor
Joined: 28 Dec 2011
Posts: 4452
Own Kudos [?]: 28590 [1]
Given Kudos: 130
Re: is this sentence correct [#permalink] New post   19 Oct 2012, 13:56
1
Kudos
Expert Reply
rich895 wrote:
Thanks for explaining. I am not fully following.
The reason I had the doubt to begin with was..
Am I combining present tense and conditional, thereby not following the verb sequence.
Anyone who has access to do X - present tense
Should also have ... - conditional

It actually doesn't matter that it's a conditional construction. Everything I said about auxiliary verbs applies.

"Anyone who has access to do X also should have access to do Y"

has = singular in number
have = infinitive form

"Everyone who eats dessert regularly should exercise frequently."

eats = singular in number
exercise = infinitive form

If there any auxiliary verb, whether the "should" of a conditional construction or any other verb, that auxiliary verb refers to the number (here, the verb "should" doesn't change from singular to plural) and the main verb appears in the infinitive form.

Does all this make sense?

Mike :-)
avatar
rich895
Intern
Intern
Joined: 14 Aug 2012
Posts: 19
Own Kudos [?]: 1 [0]
Given Kudos: 7
Schools: McCombs EMBA"17
Send PM
Re: is this sentence correct [#permalink] New post   29 Oct 2012, 09:48
Thanks I follow you.
Kudos to you for taking time to explain.


mikemcgarry wrote:
rich895 wrote:
Thanks for explaining. I am not fully following.
The reason I had the doubt to begin with was..
Am I combining present tense and conditional, thereby not following the verb sequence.
Anyone who has access to do X - present tense
Should also have ... - conditional

It actually doesn't matter that it's a conditional construction. Everything I said about auxiliary verbs applies.

"Anyone who has access to do X also should have access to do Y"

has = singular in number
have = infinitive form

"Everyone who eats dessert regularly should exercise frequently."

eats = singular in number
exercise = infinitive form

If there any auxiliary verb, whether the "should" of a conditional construction or any other verb, that auxiliary verb refers to the number (here, the verb "should" doesn't change from singular to plural) and the main verb appears in the infinitive form.

Does all this make sense?

Mike :-)
User avatar
VerbalBot
Non-Human User
Joined: 01 Oct 2013
Posts: 17250
Own Kudos [?]: 848 [0]
Given Kudos: 0
Send PM
Re: is this sentence correct [#permalink] New post   03 Jul 2020, 22:29
Hello from the GMAT Club VerbalBot!

Thanks to another GMAT Club member, I have just discovered this valuable topic, yet it had no discussion for over a year. I am now bumping it up - doing my job. I think you may find it valuable (esp those replies with Kudos).

Want to see all other topics I dig out? Follow me (click follow button on profile). You will receive a summary of all topics I bump in your profile area as well as via email.
GMAT Club Bot
gmatclubot
Re: is this sentence correct [#permalink]
03 Jul 2020, 22:29
Moderators:
GMATNinja
GMAT Club Verbal Expert
6925 posts
GMATNinjaTwo
GMAT Club Verbal Expert
238 posts
Sajjad1994
GRE Forum Moderator
13982 posts

Powered by phpBB © phpBB Group | Emoji artwork provided by EmojiOne
Main navigation
GMAT Resources
Partners
MBA Resources
www.gmac.com|www.mba.com | | GMAT Club Rules | Terms and Conditions