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rich895
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is this sentence correct 15 Oct 2012, 15:21
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"Anyone who has access to do X should also have access to do Y"

I was writing an email and I stumbled on this.
"Anyone" is singular, so I used 'has' for the first part. The second part I cannot use 'has'(or should I use 'has'), so used 'have'. Is this grammatically correct. What abt parallelism? has/have
If not correct , pls explain the correct usage. Thanks

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is this sentence correct 15 Oct 2012, 17:45
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rich895
"Anyone who has access to do X should also have access to do Y"

I was writing an email and I stumbled on this.
"Anyone" is singular, so I used 'has' for the first part. The second part I cannot use 'has'(or should I use 'has'), so used 'have'. Is this grammatically correct. What abt parallelism? has/have
If not correct , pls explain the correct usage. Thanks
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I'm happy to help with this. :-)

Both of these verbs are correct. Both are singular ---- the verb "has" is singular, and the verb "should have" is also singular.

When we use an auxiliary verb, a "helping" verb" with a main verb in the present tense, the main verb takes its infinitive form, and the auxiliary verb reflects the "number" of the verb (i.e. whether the verb is singular or plural.)

He gives ...
He will give ...
He does give ...
He can give ...
He might give ...
He should give ...

In the first, the verb "gives" is singular. In all the others, the main verb is in the infinitive form, "give", and the correct number (i.e. singular) is reflected in the auxiliary verb (most of the auxiliary verbs don't change --- the only one that does change with number is do/does.)

Does all this make sense?

Mike :-)
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is this sentence correct 18 Oct 2012, 16:50
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Thanks for explaining. I am not fully following.
The reason I had the doubt to begin with was..
Am I combining present tense and conditional, thereby not following the verb sequence.
Anyone who has access to do X - present tense
Should also have ... - conditional




mikemcgarry
rich895
"Anyone who has access to do X should also have access to do Y"

I was writing an email and I stumbled on this.
"Anyone" is singular, so I used 'has' for the first part. The second part I cannot use 'has'(or should I use 'has'), so used 'have'. Is this grammatically correct. What abt parallelism? has/have
If not correct , pls explain the correct usage. Thanks
I'm happy to help with this. :-)

Both of these verbs are correct. Both are singular ---- the verb "has" is singular, and the verb "should have" is also singular.

When we use an auxiliary verb, a "helping" verb" with a main verb in the present tense, the main verb takes its infinitive form, and the auxiliary verb reflects the "number" of the verb (i.e. whether the verb is singular or plural.)

He gives ...
He will give ...
He does give ...
He can give ...
He might give ...
He should give ...

In the first, the verb "gives" is singular. In all the others, the main verb is in the infinitive form, "give", and the correct number (i.e. singular) is reflected in the auxiliary verb (most of the auxiliary verbs don't change --- the only one that does change with number is do/does.)

Does all this make sense?

Mike :-)
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is this sentence correct 19 Oct 2012, 13:56
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rich895
Thanks for explaining. I am not fully following.
The reason I had the doubt to begin with was..
Am I combining present tense and conditional, thereby not following the verb sequence.
Anyone who has access to do X - present tense
Should also have ... - conditional
Show more
It actually doesn't matter that it's a conditional construction. Everything I said about auxiliary verbs applies.

"Anyone who has access to do X also should have access to do Y"

has = singular in number
have = infinitive form

"Everyone who eats dessert regularly should exercise frequently."

eats = singular in number
exercise = infinitive form

If there any auxiliary verb, whether the "should" of a conditional construction or any other verb, that auxiliary verb refers to the number (here, the verb "should" doesn't change from singular to plural) and the main verb appears in the infinitive form.

Does all this make sense?

Mike :-)
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rich895
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is this sentence correct 29 Oct 2012, 09:48
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Thanks I follow you.
Kudos to you for taking time to explain.


mikemcgarry
rich895
Thanks for explaining. I am not fully following.
The reason I had the doubt to begin with was..
Am I combining present tense and conditional, thereby not following the verb sequence.
Anyone who has access to do X - present tense
Should also have ... - conditional
It actually doesn't matter that it's a conditional construction. Everything I said about auxiliary verbs applies.

"Anyone who has access to do X also should have access to do Y"

has = singular in number
have = infinitive form

"Everyone who eats dessert regularly should exercise frequently."

eats = singular in number
exercise = infinitive form

If there any auxiliary verb, whether the "should" of a conditional construction or any other verb, that auxiliary verb refers to the number (here, the verb "should" doesn't change from singular to plural) and the main verb appears in the infinitive form.

Does all this make sense?

Mike :-)
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is this sentence correct 03 Jul 2020, 22:29
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