Virgo wrote:
Mike
Option B can be justified in following way:
It is a pronoun which refers to the previous singular noun or acting noun i.e. GERUND "permitting" , which makes sense with the word justifiable thereby meaning that permitting was justifiable but board is not ready to discuss it.
I understand that first "it" refers to the board correctly.
Does this make sense?? Kindly point out error in my reasoning.
Dear
Virgo,
I'm happy to respond.
I will say a couple things. First of all , here's the ending of option (B)
...
refuses to discuss permitting leaves of absences even when it is justifiable.
Many students make the mistake of view grammar as a kind of mathematical exercise, without taking into account other layers of the sentence. In fact, grammar is always rooted in logic and meaning, which are the truly powerful currents in a sentence. Grammar is a surface feature that simply reflects these depths.
Think about the situation. What is the controversial item? The "
leaves of absences" provide the hot controversy here. Are they permitted or not? Are we even going to discuss whether they are permitted? The "
leaves of absences" are the focal point of this controversy. Thus, when we specifying the parameters of this controversy, it makes the most sentence to focus on the heart of the controversy---
even when the leaves of absences are justifiable. It would be rhetorically & logically awkward to end that sentence: "
even when permitting the leaves of absences is justifiable." That is somewhat awkward phrasing, and also it sounds evasive: why are we shifting the focus to something other than the heart of the controversy? Anything that sounds evasive sound indirect, and the business world & the GMAT like clear, forthright, direct language. Any sensible person would not do business with someone who seemed to be hiding something, and the language preferences on the GMAT reflect this. These ideas form one important consideration about option (B).
A much more tangible consideration in (B):
...
it refuses to discuss permitting leaves of absences even when it is justifiable.
The same pronoun typically cannot refer to two different antecedents in the same sentence. If there are two independent clauses, and the pronoun uses are separate enough, then sometimes this is OK. In this sentence, though, the use is too close, and the same pronoun is referring to two different things. That's an automatic disqualifier on the GMAT SC.
Does all this make sense?
Mike