Amazing question..let's BOIL this THINGY down.
Philosopher: An action is morally right if it would be reasonably expected to increase the aggregate well-being of the people affected by it. An action is morally wrong if and only if it would be reasonably expected to reduce the aggregate wellbeing of the people affected by it. Thus, actions that would be reasonably expected to leave unchanged the aggregate well-being of the people affected by them are also right
Increase well-being => Right
Wrong
<=> Decrease well-being.
What's the key? Well the damn FIRST arrow of the second BOIL statement, mate! This means..the ONLY way an action is wrong is if it decreases well-being.
By that school of thought, an action that leave the people unaffected is NOT WRONG. We have:
Premise: Unaffected => NOT WRONG
Assumption: ????
Claim: Unaffected => RIGHT
I think from this point..you can deduce the answer:
The philosopher’s conclusion follows logically if which one of the following is assumed?
(A) Only wrong actions would be reasonably expected to reduce the aggregate well-being of the people affected by them.
(B) No action is both right and wrong.
(C) Any action that is not morally wrong is morally right.
(D) There are actions that would be reasonably expected to leave unchanged the aggregate well-being of the people affected by them.
(E) Only right actions have good consequences
Source: LSAT