varotkorn wrote:
Dear
IanStewart AnthonyRitz GMATGuruNY VeritasPrepBrian ccooley DmitryFarber,
(A) At nearly 38 million dollars, one of the least costly options being considered, the delegate’s proposal was ultimately rejected not only on account of its sizable budget but also on account of its considerable risk.Q1. For choice A., can the underlined portion modify "the delegate's proposal" - the following noun?
====================================================
(B) Even at nearly 38 million dollars, the delegate’s proposal was among the less costly options being considered; it was ultimately rejected not on account of its sizable budget but on account of its riskiness.Q2. For choice B., what is the role of "being"? I thought it was correct when used as a noun or in passive continuous tense.
Q3. Why do we not need THAN after "less"?
==========================================================
(C) The delegate’s 38-million-dollar proposal, which was ultimately not rejected on account of its sizable budget but on account of its riskiness, had actually been one of the less costly options being considered.Q4. For choice C., according to Veritas Advanced Verbal book's solution on Q42
Quote:
in C - "had been" in the past-perfect tense is incorrect, as once the modifier is removed there's no past-tense event to pair with the past-perfect
In judging whether past-perf tense can be used, do we need to remove modifier every time?
Why can't another past even in past simple be in the modifier?
May I quote content from
MGMAT? No judgment or bias here. I just would like to invite GMATClub verbal experts to discuss the content objectively and fruitfully.
According to
MGMAT P. 125 Chapter 8 Verbs:
Quote:
Right: BY 1945, the United States HAD BEEN at war for several years.
If we remove the modifier from the above sentence, there would definitely be only 1 verb. Hence the above sentence is wrong, right?
A is wrong on logical grounds. If it's "one of the least costly options being considered," why would it be "rejected... on account of its sizable budget"? Without so much as a hint of surprise about the contrast that inheres between those two facts? The initial modifiers didn’t bother me, though.
B is correct. It's one of the rare correct participial usages of "being" -- to describe, in certain cases, something that is happening, at the time, in an ongoing manner. "being" is a weird word that is often misused as a participle, but it's fine here and we had bigger fish to fry in all other answers here anyway. Oh, and Manhattan's example, "
BY 1945, the United States
HAD BEEN at war for several years," is perfectly grammatically correct.
Why would "less" need to be followed by "than"? There's no rule that says this. It is one of the "less costly" options, though perhaps not along the very "least costly" of them.
C fails parallelism with "not rejected on ... but on" -- the "rejected" is a problem as it has been placed. The verb tense doesn't bother me, though.
D dangles the "nevertheless" without something clear to contrast. Worse, it also butchers parallelism at the end ("but its riskiness").
E repeats the logic error of A.
To some earlier posters: Please do not ever, ever, ever make a decision based on the bogus "due to"/"because of" idiom split. This is not a GMAT issue. First of all, it's not even clearly agreed upon among language experts. And secondly, idioms are gross and stupid and not tested, qua idioms, on the modern (~past ten years or more) GMAT.
Also: Please stop talking about "original" or "intended" meaning. It's not a thing. The only standard of meaning on the GMAT is whether the meaning is logical or illogical.