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# cr - Political system

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Senior Manager
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17 Jul 2004, 12:07
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In a political system with only two major parties, the entrance of a third-party candidate into an election race damages the chances of only one of the two major candidates. The third-party candidate always attracts some of the voters who might otherwise have voted for one of the two major candidates, but not voters who support the other candidate. Since a third-party candidacy affects the two major candidates unequally, for reasons neither of them has any control over, the practice is unfair and should not be allowed.

If the factual information in the passage above is true, which of the following can be most reliably inferred from it?

(A) If the political platform of the third party is a compromise position between that of the two major parties, the third party will draw its voters equally from the two major parties.
(B) If, before the emergence of a third party, voters were divided equally between the two major parties, neither of the major parties is likely to capture much more than one-half of the vote.
(C) A third-party candidate will not capture the votes of new voters who have never voted for candidates of either of the two major parties.
(D) The political stance of a third party will be more radical than that of either of the two major parties.
(E) The founders of a third party are likely to be a coalition consisting of former leaders of the two major parties.
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17 Jul 2004, 12:51
C here! (2 min 21s)

<not able to justify fully. Will attempt to think it over >
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17 Jul 2004, 13:04
B for me.
before 50% to 1, 50% to 2
after 3rd party: either 1 or 2 loose its candidates. Thus, the % of vote for either party won't be more than 1/2 or 50%.

C: new candidate will either vote for 1 or 2, but can also vote for the 3rd party. No restriction for her.
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17 Jul 2004, 13:14
Why cann't the % be more than 50?

Say there are in all 100 voters and 50 vote for 1 and 50 for 2

now with the third candidate coming in, it could be 25 for 1, 20 for 3 and 55 for 2 !

<B>
before 50% to 1, 50% to 2
after 3rd party: either 1 or 2 loose its candidates. Thus, the % of vote for either party won't be more than 1/2 or 50%.
</B>
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17 Jul 2004, 14:01
Vithal wrote:
Why cann't the % be more than 50?

Say there are in all 100 voters and 50 vote for 1 and 50 for 2

now with the third candidate coming in, it could be 25 for 1, 20 for 3 and 55 for 2 !

see the premise (bold):

The third-party candidate always attracts some of the voters who might otherwise have voted for one of the two major candidates, but not voters who support the other candidate
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17 Jul 2004, 14:26
B
(B) If, before the emergence of a third party, voters were divided equally between the two major parties, neither of the major parties is likely to capture much more than one-half of the vote.

both have equal votes and are not going to increase votes because of the 3rd party.

There are couple of small assumptions here that no new voters show up and the voters' opinion does not change during the period of 3rd party emergence and actual election time.However B says "is likely to capture", so there is no firm commitment but will likely happen, I agree with the statement.I go with B.
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19 Jul 2004, 01:15
It is B. The stem states "The third-party candidate always attracts some of the voters who might otherwise have voted for one of the two major candidates, but not voters who support the other candidate". It doesn't mean that it doesn't take new voters
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19 Jul 2004, 01:45
(B) for sure.

Also note that (C) is too strong "never"
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19 Jul 2004, 01:53
There is an inherent assumption that not more than one half of the new voters go to the one party that is not affected by the third candidate,. If we assume this to be true, then B makes sense. Else none of the oiptions could be chosen.
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19 Jul 2004, 13:10
B is my FA. Reasoning given by dj
19 Jul 2004, 13:10
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