If R = P/Q, is R P? (1) P > 50 (2) 0 < Q 20

doesn't combining (1)+(2) imply 1<=q<=2, common region implied by options
(1) and (2)

Thanks for your reply

I think you dint get my problem

what i want to ask is

option1 states Q<0 or Q>=1

option2 states 1<=Q<=20,cant 1 and 2 be combined to say that Q definitely lies between 1 and 20

and in that case 1/q will definitely be <=1

and c will be the answer

If R=P/Q, is R≤P?

First of all a proper GMAT question would mention that Q doesn't equal to zero (as it's in denominator).

Next, we don't need R at all, substitute it. The question becomes is \(\frac{P}{Q}\leq{P}\)? Notice that we can not reduce both sides by P since we don't know the sign of it, thus don't know whether we should flip the sign of the inequality when reducing.

(1) P>50 --> P is positive - reduce by it. The question becomes is \(\frac{1}{Q}\leq{1}\)? --> is \(Q<0\) or \(Q\geq{1}\)? We don't know that. Not sufficient.

(2) 0<Q≤20. No info about P. Not sufficient.

(1)+(2) From (1) the question became: is \(Q<0\) or \(Q\geq{1}\)? Now, (2) says \(0<Q\leq{20}\), which is not sufficient to answer the question definitely: if \(1\leq{Q}\leq{20}\) the answer is YES but if \(0<Q<1\) the answer is NO. Not sufficient.

Answer: E.

Hope it's clear.

hello sir
how can we replace r with p
can you please give a generalised methodo for such substitution

If R=P/Q, is R≤P?

We don't need R at all, so substitute it. The question becomes is \(\frac{P}{Q}\leq{P}\)? Notice that we can not reduce both sides by P since we don't know the sign of it, thus don't know whether we should flip the sign of the inequality when reducing.

(1) P>50 --> P is positive - reduce by it. The question becomes is \(\frac{1}{Q}\leq{1}\)? --> is \(Q<0\) or \(Q\geq{1}\)? We don't know that. Not sufficient.

(2) 0<Q≤20. No info about P. Not sufficient.

(1)+(2) From (1) the question became: is \(Q<0\) or \(Q\geq{1}\)? Now, (2) says \(0<Q\leq{20}\), which is not sufficient to answer the question definitely: if \(1\leq{Q}\leq{20}\) the answer is YES but if \(0<Q<1\) the answer is NO. Not sufficient.

Answer: E.

Hope it's clear.

How we got \(Q<0\)?
I understand that for \(\frac{1}{Q} \leq1\) Q could be either \(Q\leq{1}\) or \(Q <0\) but then again I can say \(Q=0\)