PReciSioN wrote:
First of all, apologies for not posting this as an interactive question. I don't know how to create that.
Coming to the question, in the second blank (options are 1) Steep increase 2) Steep decrease 3) no change) -
"Based on the information in the graph, the period immediately following the recession ending in the late 1940s, compared with the period immediately following the recession ending in the early 1990s, was characterized by" Why has this comparison been made? Even without comparison with the recession of early 1990s, the early 1940's has a steep decrease in unemployment rates. Does this mean that if the 1990s (which has an increase followed by a decrease) had an even steeper decrease than the 1940's, we would have chosen a steep increase as characteristic of the 1940s (in comparison with the 90s)?
KarishmaB Bunuel MartyMurray avigutman ChiranjeevSingh No, I wouldn't say the question is ambiguous. In fact, they might have put in this additional data to ensure that you understand what "period immediately following the recession" is. It is not the end of the recession (where unemployment peaked in 1940s recession) but the period after that when the unemployment fell drastically. In comparison, the unemployment rate climbed after 1990s recession in that period.
Say, compared to the period after the recession in mid 1970s, the period after the recession in 1940s saw a "steeper decline" in unemploment rate.