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16 Oct 2008, 16:06
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Hi,
I am working on the Gmat Study Guide (wikibook of gmatclub) on the Algebra section. I have a question regarding Basic Rules for Inequalities:
Example: a>b>0, c>d>0
The guide says that "you can only apply substractions and divisions when their signs are in the opposite directions:
* a>b, db-c
* a/d>b/c
* You cannot say a/c>b/c. It is WRONG.
My questions are:
1. when it says "their signs", which is it referring to? Is it a and b, d and c or what?
2. Why cannot you say a/c>b>c while you assume at the beginning at a>b>0 and c>d>0.
Can someone explain to me, please?
Thanks
Natalie
I am working on the Gmat Study Guide (wikibook of gmatclub) on the Algebra section. I have a question regarding Basic Rules for Inequalities:
Example: a>b>0, c>d>0
The guide says that "you can only apply substractions and divisions when their signs are in the opposite directions:
* a>b, db-c
* a/d>b/c
* You cannot say a/c>b/c. It is WRONG.
My questions are:
1. when it says "their signs", which is it referring to? Is it a and b, d and c or what?
2. Why cannot you say a/c>b>c while you assume at the beginning at a>b>0 and c>d>0.
Can someone explain to me, please?
Thanks
Natalie
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Hi there,
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16 Oct 2008, 17:14
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[quote="nganle08"]Thanks for the answer. and sorry for the typo.
the question is why it is wrong to say a/c>b/c while a>b>0 and c>d>0?
what has d got to do with it ??/
if a,b,c are +ve and a>b>0 and c>0
then sure
a/c>b/c
the question is why it is wrong to say a/c>b/c while a>b>0 and c>d>0?
what has d got to do with it ??/
if a,b,c are +ve and a>b>0 and c>0
then sure
a/c>b/c
