WilDThiNg
Bunuel
If k#0, 1 or -1 is \(\frac{1}{k}> 0\)?
Basically the question asks: is \(k>0\)?
(1) \(\frac{1}{k-1}> 0\) --> denominator is positive: \(k-1>0\)--> \(k>1\), hence \(\frac{1}{k}>0\). Sufficient.
(2) \(\frac{1}{k+1}> 0\)--> denominator is positive: \(k+1>0\) --> \(k>-1\), hence \(k\) can be negative as well as positive: \(\frac{1}{k}\) may or may not be \(>0\). Not sufficient.
Answer: A.
Hope it's clear.
A very fundamental or maybe silly question regarding such questions: when we are deducing from (1/K)>0 -> K>0.. how are we doing that, as assuming 0/0 on the RHS would be undefined.
Thanks
No, we are not assuming 0/0. When you are given a/b > 0 this means that the fraction a/b > 0 ---> 2 cases possible,
Case 1, either both a,b > 0 or
Case 2, both a,b < 0.
You can try the following examples to see the above 2 cases:
Case 1: a=1, b = 2, a/b = 0.5 > 0
Case 2, a=-1, b = -5 , a/b = 0.2 > 0
But if lets say you have a=-1 and b = 2 or a=2 and b= -3 , a/b <0 and NOT >0.
You can even remember this that in order for a fraction a/b to be >0 ---> both a,b
MUST have the same signs. Either both of them are >0 or both of them are negative.
Coming back to the question,
When you are given 1/k > 0 ---> 1 is already >0 so based on the 'rule' above, k must also be positive in order for 1 and k to have the same 'sign'. Thus k>0.
Similarly, if 1/(k-1) > 0 ---> k-1 > 0 ---> k >1 etc.
Hope this helps.