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Since this was in the last few probs of OG, thot that x/y could also be interpreted as x=-2 and y=-3 and therefore x/y can be equal to 2/3. OG proved me wrong, but is this a theoretical possibility?

we have this law of fraction:
a/b=c/d= (a-c)/(b-d)

Since this was in the last few probs of OG, thot that x/y could also be interpreted as x=-2 and y=-3 and therefore x/y can be equal to 2/3. OG proved me wrong, but is this a theoretical possibility?

we have this law of fraction: a/b=c/d= (a-c)/(b-d)

did i get lucky? or can this be a correct approach.

I cross multiplied to get 3x=2y. I then divided by 3 to get 2/3y and just plugged that into where ever x was

Yes, the approach is fine. You are eliminating one variable, bringing it all in terms of a single variable and then cancelling it off to get a value.
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