A tablet containing one of the most famous mathematical texts from

A - Feel that would is not apt there since pythagerons already derived theorem.

B - derived from is wrong usage

C - before the time is redundant

D - has is perfect tense not apt here.

E- Seems good in all aspects.

The reason I did not mark B is because it changed the meaning. Is it okay if the meaning is changed.
From: X derived Y
To: X derived from Y

generis sudarshan22 GMATNinja

A tablet containing one of the most famous mathematical texts from ancient Mesopotamia proves that the Babylonians had derived the formula that came later to be called the Pythagorean theorem long before the Greek philosopher Pythagoras would.

A) had derived the formula that came later to be called the Pythagorean theorem long before the Greek philosopher Pythagoras would
B) derived from the formula later called the Pythagorean theorem long before the Greek philosopher Pythagoras did
C) derived what was later called the Pythagorean theorem long before the time in which the Greek philosopher Pythagorean was
D) derived the formula later called the Pythagorean theorem long before the Greek philosopher has
E) derived from the formula later called the Pythagorean theorem long before its derivation by the Greek philosopher Pythagoras



I will edit the original.

OFFICIAL EXPLANATION

• The presence of the verb derived in different forms, as well as the presence of different verbs
at the end of different answer choices indicates that this question is testing both verb tense and parallel structure.

The verb at the end of the sentence must be parallel to the verb at the beginning of the underlined portion.

• (A) is incorrect because had derived is not parallel to would.
-- In addition, came later to be should be later came to be.
The adverb later modifies the entire clause that came to be called the Pythagorean theorem.

• If we were to write out the full correction, the sentence would read,
A tablet containing one of the most famous mathematical texts from ancient Mesopotamia proves that the Babylonians derived the formula that LATER came to be called the Pythagorean theorem long before the Greek philosopher Pythagoras derived it/the formula.

The goal is to find the answer that matches that construction most closely.

• (B) is correct because did is an appropriate substitute for derived, and both verbs are placed in the simple past.

• C and D are incorrect because was and has cannot substitute for derived,
and because where in C cannot refer to a time.
On the GMAT, where must be a place, a literal place, such as Elm Street or the Eiffel Tower or "my house."

• E is incorrect because it is illogical. Derived should not be followed by a preposition in this case: X is derived from Y.
The Babylonians derived the formula—they did not derive from the formula.

COMMENTS

• A good rule of thumb: if you can avoid deciding between past perfect and simple past, do so.
1) many people incorrectly avoid simple past merely because one event in the past happens earlier than the other.
If, as in this case, there is a time sequence word such as LATER, simple past is fine.
We know which action is the "past of the past" without having to use past perfect.

2) Words such as before, after, previously, and later (and others) signal the time sequence.
We therefore have two events that happened in the past and we do not need "had derived" (for those who rejected B
because it was not framed in past perfect)

Correct: The Mt. Saint Helens volcano showed signs of trouble long before it erupted.
Not necessary, but allowed: The Mt. Saint Helens volcano had showed signs of trouble long before it erupted.

Find a different decision point.
A vs. B? In A, 1) had derived and would are not parallel; 2) LATER is misplaced.

*********
Again, I apologize. Nothing like a crazy-making question created by a typo.

Kudos to all.

HAPPY 2019!

adkikani - Yes, past perfect is permitted with a time sequence word, but past perfect is not automatically preferred.

In fact, if at all, the balance tilts towards simple past.

I wish to emphasize that IF a sentence contains a time sequence word, two past events can be described by simple past.

I have no idea from which post your quote comes. Please, post a link?
It is difficult to analyze statements pulled out of original context.

• Almost certainly, you can and should find a decision point other than verb tense if past perfect and simple past seem to be at issue.
Of the most recently published 251 official questions in OG 2019 and OG VR 2019, all of which I read,
if past perfect and simple past show up in the answer choices,
there is always another decision point, one that has nothing to do with verb tense.

• In this question, a different decision point can eliminate (A): had derived and would are not parallel.
And (A) should be "LATER came to pass."

I will edit my response. My point could have been made more clearly:

• Do not reject simple past merely because there is more than one action in the past.
If 2+ events happened in the past and there is a time sequence word (LATER) or dates that show sequence,
simple past is correct.
(And hypothetically, theoretically, counterfactually as far as I can tell:
IF all else is equal, choose concision and avoidance of redundancy.)

Hope that helps.

Shobhit7 That is definitely not a rule. When we use do/does/did to stand in for an earlier verb, we typically should not repeat the verb:

I ran faster than he did.
She saw the movie earlier in the week than you did.
He finds more value in the plan than we do.

Hi generis

Thanks for the detailed comments.

Was I incorrect in understanding earlier? I thought both tenses are permitted.

GMATNinja

QUERY:

Whenever an elliptical clause ends with a helping verb, such as 'did' in choice B, shouldn't associated main verb be present in the initial clause. eg. did + derive. If yes, then in choice B, how "did+derived (past tense)" stands incorrect?