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One reason why European music has had such a strong

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11 Aug 2010, 02:58
Yes, this one is definitely D, though it isn't at all like any real GMAT CR questions, so people shouldn't worry about it much. The question asks which answer choices are 'compatible with' the information given in the stem - that is, it's asking which answer choices could, in theory be true if you accept the information given.

The point of the passage is that "sophisticated" European music "has so much internal coherence that the music ultimately depends on nothing but itself." Even when this music is divorced from its function, it is still *coherent*. That contradicts D completely, which says that sophisticated music is *unintelligible*.
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12 Aug 2010, 08:09
D for me !!!

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12 Aug 2010, 10:49
I was leaning towards A but the argument does not say that European musin had the strogest influence.

My pick is D.

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12 Aug 2010, 13:01
Great question and please reveal OA

I'm for A

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12 Aug 2010, 13:24
definitely D

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12 Aug 2010, 14:04
One reason why European music has had such a strong influence throughout the world, and why it is a sophisticated achievement, is that over time the original function of the music—whether ritual, dance, or worship—gradually became an aspect of its style, not its defining force. Dance music could stand independent of dance, for example, and sacred music independent of religious worship, because each composition has so much internal coherence that the music ultimately depends on nothing but itself.
The claims made above are compatible with each of the following EXCEPT:

Rephrase it: Which of the following is not contrary to the passage.
POE method is particularly effective on 700-level questions b/c the right choice would be so confusing on the verbal part.

A. European music has had such a strong influence throughout the world, but not the strongest
Means that some other continents' music migh have had more powerful effect on the world, and African music might be one of them. How is this answer incompatible with the argument. No how. Eliminate A.

(B) It does not contradict the passage at all. It just partially explains why European music has been so influential.

C. This answer is consitent with the following statement: the original function of the music—whether ritual, dance, or worship—gradually became an aspect of its style, not its defining force.

(E) No problem, the argument does not state that this rule is absolute. There might be some exceptions. This might be one of them.

That leaves D.
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15 Aug 2010, 12:59

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15 Aug 2010, 16:14
so whats the Original Answer ???
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18 Aug 2010, 02:34
DEFINATELY D

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07 Sep 2010, 01:59
D
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07 Sep 2010, 07:57
i think a

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08 Sep 2010, 05:27
noboru wrote:
25. One reason why European music has had such a strong influence throughout the world, and why it is a sophisticated achievement, is that over time the original function of the music—whether ritual, dance, or worship—gradually became an aspect of its style, not its defining force. Dance music could stand independent of dance, for example, and sacred music independent of religious worship, because each composition has so much internal coherence that the music ultimately depends on nothing but itself.
The claims made above are compatible with each of the following EXCEPT:
(A) African music has had a more powerful impact on the world than European music has had.
(B) European military and economic expansionism partially explains the global influence of European music.
(C) The original functions of many types of Chinese music are no longer their defining forces.
(D) Music that is unintelligible when it is presented independently of its original function tends to be the most sophisticated music.
(E) Some works of art lose their appeal when they are presented to serve a function other than their original one.

Seems like an easy (D) to me. The key is that they're asking which choices the claims are COMPATIBLE with - not necessarily that the answers are DEFINITELY true, but that they COULD be true without contradicting the article.

(A) - The article states only that European music has had a large global influence - not that it had the LARGEST influence. African music could have had a larger influence without contradicting the article. Compatible.

(B) - The article states ONE OF the reasons why European music had a large global influence. This could certainly be ANOTHER reason, and it makes sense as one. Compatible.

(C) - The point the article makes is that the original functions of European music are no longer the defining forces - it makes no claim that ONLY European music has this quality. It could certainly be true of other music, like, say, Chinese. Compatible.

(D) - European music is globally influential because it stands alone without needing its original function - in other words, you don't have to include a ritualistic dance to appreciate the music being danced to, because the music is good enough on its own. This option states the exact opposite - the most sophisticated music is unintelligible without its original function, so it CAN'T stand alone. Complete contradiction - incompatible.

(E) - This is a direct inference from the article. If the global influence of European music can partially be attributed to the fact that it can stand alone without its original function, it would make sense that there are works of art which cannot stand alone without their original functions. Compatible.

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Re: One reason why European music has had such a strong [#permalink]

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17 Nov 2011, 22:32
Straight D . It clearly contradicts the major theme of the stimulus that the music is internally coherent. How can it be unintelligible and sophisticated at the same time?
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Re: One reason why European music has had such a strong [#permalink]

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18 Nov 2011, 02:27
Tough one. I've chosen A and got wrong. I agreed with the reasoning of 2 guys above. I didn't think about compatible when reasoning the answer choices.
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Re: One reason why European music has had such a strong [#permalink]

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18 Nov 2011, 04:34
IMO-D

Tough one for sure...

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Re: One reason why European music has had such a strong [#permalink]

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18 Nov 2011, 18:35
I pick D. It goes against the reasoning in the premise.

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06 Dec 2011, 20:30
(A) African music has had a more powerful impact on the world than European music has had. - Pass - Compares influence of music.
(B) European military and economic expansionism partially explains the global influence of European music - Pass -Refers European musics influence
(C) The original functions of many types of Chinese music are no longer their defining forces. - Pass -Compares Chinese music's influence per se
(D) Music that is unintelligible when it is presented independently of its original function tends to be the most sophisticated music. Fail- The key words IMO are Unintelligible Vs Coherent and Sophisticated (in the main para)
(E) Some works of art lose their appeal when they are presented to serve a function other than their original one. - Very Generic statement

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Re: One reason why European music has had such a strong [#permalink]

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09 Dec 2011, 09:04
i am still torn between A and D. I understand there is no mention of Africa in the passage. However in D the argument is too strong in mentioning most.

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Re: One reason why European music has had such a strong [#permalink]

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09 Dec 2011, 11:30
+1D

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Re: One reason why European music has had such a strong [#permalink]

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03 Jan 2012, 22:46
I chose A.I am still unable to comprehend how is it D,as this argument needs weakening and D is strengthening it!

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Re: One reason why European music has had such a strong   [#permalink] 03 Jan 2012, 22:46

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