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Re: Some people may believe that a person, who [#permalink]
Is there a significance to the semicolon here. Is that a reason for the second independent clause to have the 'insanity' explicitly mentioned?
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Re: Some people may believe that a person, who [#permalink]
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ramanujanu wrote:
Is there a significance to the semicolon here. Is that a reason for the second independent clause to have the 'insanity' explicitly mentioned?


Hi ramanujanu,

The word "insanity" is used in the second clause to remove any pronoun reference ambiguity. The importance of the semicolon is not very significant in this question. If we use "it" in the second clause then "it" will have no clear antecedent. In the first clause the word "insane" (an adjective) is used; however a pronoun "it" can not refer to an adjective. That's why we have to explicitly mention "insanity" (a noun) in the second clause.

Hope that helps,

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Re: Some people may believe that a person, who [#permalink]
Some people may believe that a person, who does not behave normally in public, should be declared insane; however its legal definition is someone who is unable to distinguish right from wrong.

(A) its legal definition is someone who is unableIts should logically refer to Insane but the subject of previous clause is "a Person"
(B) legally, it refers to a person who is unablePronoun error
(C) it is legally defined as the inability Pronoun error
(D) the legal definition of insanity is the inabilityCorrect
(E) legally, they refer to someone who is unable..It changes the meaning
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Some people may believe that a person, who does not behave [#permalink]
Hi Guys

I cant really follow whats the pronoun issue with B ? Is the "it" not "referring" to "insane"? Please guide
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Re: Some people may believe that a person, who does not behave [#permalink]
Quote:
Some people may believe that a person, who does not behave normally in public, should be declared insane; however its legal definition is someone who is unable to distinguish right from wrong.

(A) its legal definition is someone who is unable
(B) legally, it refers to a person who is unable
(C) it is legally defined as the inability
(D) the legal definition of insanity is the inability
(E) legally, they refer to someone who is unable


The right answer is D. The thing/concept being defined is "insanity. Hence, if we use a pronoun, we should see the word 'insanity' before, so it's clear as to what we are replacing. Since it isn't there, the only option WITHOUT the pronoun ends up being the right one.

Therefore, D is the right answer.
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Re: Some people may believe that a person, who does not behave [#permalink]
Shouldn’t there technically be a comma after however in the correct answer choice?

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Re: Some people may believe that a person, who does not behave [#permalink]
Hello from the GMAT Club VerbalBot!

Thanks to another GMAT Club member, I have just discovered this valuable topic, yet it had no discussion for over a year. I am now bumping it up - doing my job. I think you may find it valuable (esp those replies with Kudos).

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Re: Some people may believe that a person, who does not behave [#permalink]
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