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Yeasts capable of leavening bread are widespread, and in the many cent [#permalink]
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Updated on: 16 Jun 2018, 22:44
7
32
00:00
A
B
C
D
E
Difficulty:
35% (medium)
Question Stats:
73% (01:23) correct 27% (01:31) wrong based on 1493 sessions
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Source : GMATPrep Default Exam Pack
Yeasts capable of leavening bread are widespread, and in the many centuries during which the ancient Egyptians made only unleavened bread, such yeasts must frequently have been mixed into bread doughs accidentally. The Egyptians, however, did not discover leavened bread until about 3000 B. C. That discovery roughly coincided with the introduction of a wheat variety that was preferable to previous varieties because its edible kernel could be removed from the husk without first toasting the grain.
Which of the following, if true, provides the strongest evidence that the two developments were causally related?
(A) Even after the ancient Egyptians discovered leavened bread and the techniques for reliably producing it were well known, unleavened bread continued to be widely consumed.
(B) Only when the Egyptians stopped the practice grain were their stonelined grain-toasting pits available for baking bread.
(C) Heating a wheat kernel destroys its gluten, a protein that must be present in order for yeast to leaven bread dough.
(D) The new variety of wheat, which had a more delicate flavor because it was not toasted, was reserved for the consumption of high officials when it first began to be grown.
(E) Because the husk of the new variety of wheat was more easily removed, flour made from it required less effort to produce.
Re: Yeasts capable of leavening bread are widespread, and in the many cent [#permalink]
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30 Jul 2013, 17:18
18
6
smartmanav wrote:
Y C is correct ? Can someone explain with proper convincing points plz ?
As I mentioned in my prior post, this question is asking you to strengthen the conclusion that the discovery of leavend bread was causally related to the introduction of the non-toasted wheat. Your answer needs to make a definitive connection between those two events.
A - Makes no connection between non-toasted wheat and leaven. B - We are trying to connect non-toasting and leavening...the baking process after the fact is not relevant. C - This answer perfectly connects the non-toasting with the leavening. Before, when wheat was toasted, the gluten was destroyed, preventing the bread from leavining. With the new, non-toasted wheat, the gluten is present and the leavening process can take place. D - This answer does not connect non-toasting with leaven. E - Again, no connection made between non-toasting and leaven.
[Sorry for the delayed response here, we have a brand new baby at home and he's keeping me away from the computer ]
KW
Yeasts capable of leavening bread are widespread, and in the many centuries during which the ancient Egyptians made only unleavened bread, such yeasts must frequently have been mixed into bread doughs accidentally. The Egyptians, however, did not discover leavened bread until about 3000 B. C. That discovery roughly coincided with the introduction of a wheat variety that was preferable to previous varieties because its edible kernel could be removed from the husk without first toasting the grain.
Which of the following, if true, provides the strongest evidence that the two developments were causally related? A. Even after the ancient Egyptians discovered leavened bread and the techniques for reliably producing it were well known, unleavened bread continued to be widely consumed. B. Only when the Egyptians stopped the practice grain were their stonelined grain-toasting pits available for baking bread. C. Heating a wheat kernel destroys its gluten, a protein that must be present in order for yeast to leaven bread dough. D. The new variety of wheat, which had a more delicate flavor because it was not toasted, was reserved for the consumption of high officials when it first began to be grown. E. Because the husk of the new variety of wheat was more easily removed, flour Made from it required less effort to produce.
_________________
Re: Yeasts capable of leavening bread are widespread, and in the many cent [#permalink]
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05 Dec 2008, 15:34
1
I will go with C...basically says gluten less bread cannot become leavaned..
botirvoy wrote:
Yeasts capable of leavening bread are widespread, and in the many centuries during which the ancient Egyptians made only unleavened bread, such yeasts must frequently have been mixed into bread doughs accidentally. The Egyptians, however, did not discover leavened bread until about 3000 B. C. That discovery roughly coincided with the introduction of a wheat variety that was preferable to previous varieties because its edible kernel could be removed from the husk without first toasting the grain.
Which of the following, if true, provides the strongest evidence that the two developments were causally related? A. Even after the ancient Egyptians discovered leavened bread and the techniques for reliably producing it were well known, unleavened bread continued to be widely consumed. B. Only when the Egyptians stopped the practice grain were their stonelined grain-toasting pits available for baking bread. C. Heating a wheat kernel destroys its gluten, a protein that must be present in order for yeast to leaven bread dough. D. The new variety of wheat, which had a more delicate flavor because it was not toasted, was reserved for the consumption of high officials when it first began to be grown. E. Because the husk of the new variety of wheat was more easily removed, flour Made from it required less effort to produce.
Re: Yeasts capable of leavening bread are widespread, and in the many cent [#permalink]
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25 Apr 2010, 04:47
IMO C.
I took this question as an assumption based and came to C by PoE. What's the OA?
seofah wrote:
Yeasts capable of leavening bread are widespread, and in the many centuries during which the ancient Egyptians made only unleavened bread, such yeasts must frequently have been mixed into bread doughs accidentally. The Egyptians, however, did not discover leavened bread until about 3000 B. C. That discovery roughly coincided with the introduction of a wheat variety that was preferable to previous varieties because its edible kernel could be removed from the husk without first toasting the grain.
Which of the following, if true, provides the strongest evidence that the two developments were causally related? A. Even after the ancient Egyptians discovered leavened bread and the techniques for reliably producing it were well known, unleavened bread continued to be widely consumed. [So what. Is this related the discovery of Yeast and the introduction of new wheat. Incorrect] B. Only when the Egyptians stopped the practice grain were their stonelined grain-toasting pits available for baking bread. [ONLY shows extreme case and here this is showing more NEW info, which is out of context. Incorrect] C. Heating a wheat kernel destroys its gluten, a protein that must be present in order for yeast to leaven bread dough. [Correct] D. The new variety of wheat, which had a more delicate flavor because it was not toasted, was reserved for the consumption of high officials when it first began to be grown. [Misleading new info, irrelevant to this case. Incorrect] E. Because the husk of the new variety of wheat was more easily removed, flour Made from it required less effort to produce. [New info of Less Effort is added. Incorrect]
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Re: Yeasts capable of leavening bread are widespread, and in the many cent [#permalink]
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19 Nov 2011, 05:21
1
ykaiim wrote:
IMO C.
I took this question as an assumption based and came to C by PoE. What's the OA?
seofah wrote:
Yeasts capable of leavening bread are widespread, and in the many centuries during which the ancient Egyptians made only unleavened bread, such yeasts must frequently have been mixed into bread doughs accidentally. The Egyptians, however, did not discover leavened bread until about 3000 B. C. That discovery roughly coincided with the introduction of a wheat variety that was preferable to previous varieties because its edible kernel could be removed from the husk without first toasting the grain.
Which of the following, if true, provides the strongest evidence that the two developments were causally related? A. Even after the ancient Egyptians discovered leavened bread and the techniques for reliably producing it were well known, unleavened bread continued to be widely consumed. [So what. Is this related the discovery of Yeast and the introduction of new wheat. Incorrect] B. Only when the Egyptians stopped the practice grain were their stonelined grain-toasting pits available for baking bread. [ONLY shows extreme case and here this is showing more NEW info, which is out of context. Incorrect] C. Heating a wheat kernel destroys its gluten, a protein that must be present in order for yeast to leaven bread dough. [Correct] D. The new variety of wheat, which had a more delicate flavor because it was not toasted, was reserved for the consumption of high officials when it first began to be grown. [Misleading new info, irrelevant to this case. Incorrect] E. Because the husk of the new variety of wheat was more easily removed, flour Made from it required less effort to produce. [New info of Less Effort is added. Incorrect]
Nice explanation !
Also to add some more reason why b is incorrect -
b says that now leavened bread can be made because the pits are available. We can counter argue that : we could have used the pits for unleavened bread for leavened bread.... hence getting the pits free cannot be a blocking factor for making leavened bread ...
Please correct me if I misunderstood anything
_________________
Re: Yeasts capable of leavening bread are widespread, and in the many cent [#permalink]
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27 Jul 2013, 14:55
2
2
fozzzy wrote:
What's the difficulty level for this question? I couldn't figure out what question stem it was?
Tough to peg a difficulty level on questions. This one is tricky but manageable when you understand the question.
Understanding the question type is tricky because the question includes logical words (causal) that don't tie to a question type. The type is actually 'strengthen the conclusion' but the conclusion can be hard to find because its hidden in the question. The conclusion is that there is a causal relationship between the introduction of the non-toasted wheat and bread leavening.
I'll review the options when I get back to a computer.
Re: Yeasts capable of leavening bread are widespread, and in the many cent [#permalink]
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30 Jul 2013, 21:18
Yeasts capable of leavening bread are widespread, and in the many centuries during which the ancient Egyptians made only unleavened bread, such yeasts must frequently have been mixed into bread doughs accidentally. The Egyptians, however, did not discover leavened bread until about 3000 B. C. That discovery roughly coincided with the introduction of a wheat variety that was preferable to previous varieties because its edible kernel could be removed from the husk without first toasting the grain.
Which of the following, if true, provides the strongest evidence that the two developments were causally related? A. Even after the ancient Egyptians discovered leavened bread and the techniques for reliably producing it were well known, unleavened bread continued to be widely consumed. it weakens the argument
B. Only when the Egyptians stopped the practice grain were their stonelined grain-toasting pits available for baking bread. not relevant
C. Heating a wheat kernel destroys its gluten, a protein that must be present in order for yeast to leaven bread dough. correct
D. The new variety of wheat, which had a more delicate flavor because it was not toasted, was reserved for the consumption of high officials when it first began to be grown. it does not help to provide the causal relation between the two developments
E. Because the husk of the new variety of wheat was more easily removed, flour Made from it required less effort to produce. not relevant _________________
Re: Yeasts capable of leavening bread are widespread, and in the many cent [#permalink]
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09 Feb 2014, 00:26
KyleWiddison wrote:
smartmanav wrote:
Y C is correct ? Can someone explain with proper convincing points plz ?
As I mentioned in my prior post, this question is asking you to strengthen the conclusion that the discovery of leavend bread was causally related to the introduction of the non-toasted wheat. Your answer needs to make a definitive connection between those two events.
A - Makes no connection between non-toasted wheat and leaven. B - We are trying to connect non-toasting and leavening...the baking process after the fact is not relevant. C - This answer perfectly connects the non-toasting with the leavening. Before, when wheat was toasted, the gluten was destroyed, preventing the bread from leavining. With the new, non-toasted wheat, the gluten is present and the leavening process can take place. D - This answer does not connect non-toasting with leaven. E - Again, no connection made between non-toasting and leaven.
[Sorry for the delayed response here, we have a brand new baby at home and he's keeping me away from the computer ]
KW
Yeasts capable of leavening bread are widespread, and in the many centuries during which the ancient Egyptians made only unleavened bread, such yeasts must frequently have been mixed into bread doughs accidentally. The Egyptians, however, did not discover leavened bread until about 3000 B. C. That discovery roughly coincided with the introduction of a wheat variety that was preferable to previous varieties because its edible kernel could be removed from the husk without first toasting the grain.
Which of the following, if true, provides the strongest evidence that the two developments were causally related? A. Even after the ancient Egyptians discovered leavened bread and the techniques for reliably producing it were well known, unleavened bread continued to be widely consumed. B. Only when the Egyptians stopped the practice grain were their stonelined grain-toasting pits available for baking bread. C. Heating a wheat kernel destroys its gluten, a protein that must be present in order for yeast to leaven bread dough. D. The new variety of wheat, which had a more delicate flavor because it was not toasted, was reserved for the consumption of high officials when it first began to be grown. E. Because the husk of the new variety of wheat was more easily removed, flour Made from it required less effort to produce.
Great explanation. I guessed the answer without reason,now I know that the conclusion surely and see the logical structure.
Re: Yeasts capable of leavening bread are widespread, and in the many cent [#permalink]
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14 Apr 2016, 00:31
There are two things happening independently:
1 - About 3000 B.C, the Egyptians discovered that the leavened bread. Since the leavened bread is not good, they started making some good breads (we dont know how). 2 - Wheat variety was introduced and it is good (does not get bad or leavened) because its edible kernel could be removed from the husk without first toasting the grain.
Goal: Need to prove the two developments are casually related. In other words, we need find other factor that helps Egyptians make good wheat breads (not because of the process "edible kernel could be removed from the husk without first toasting the grain").
Re: Yeasts capable of leavening bread are widespread, and in the many cent [#permalink]
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15 Apr 2018, 02:11
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