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Yeasts capable of leavening bread are widespread, and in the many cent

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Yeasts capable of leavening bread are widespread, and in the many cent  [#permalink]

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New post Updated on: 23 Jan 2019, 07:18
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Yeasts capable of leavening bread are widespread, and in the many centuries during which the ancient Egyptians made only unleavened bread, such yeasts must frequently have been mixed into bread doughs accidentally. The Egyptians, however, did not discover leavened bread until about 3000 B. C. That discovery roughly coincided with the introduction of a wheat variety that was preferable to previous varieties because its edible kernel could be removed from the husk without first toasting the grain.

Which of the following, if true, provides the strongest evidence that the two developments were causally related?


(A) Even after the ancient Egyptians discovered leavened bread and the techniques for reliably producing it were well known, unleavened bread continued to be widely consumed.

(B) Only when the Egyptians stopped the practice grain were their stonelined grain-toasting pits available for baking bread.

(C) Heating a wheat kernel destroys its gluten, a protein that must be present in order for yeast to leaven bread dough.

(D) The new variety of wheat, which had a more delicate flavor because it was not toasted, was reserved for the consumption of high officials when it first began to be grown.

(E) Because the husk of the new variety of wheat was more easily removed, flour made from it required less effort to produce.


Source : GMAT Paper Set 19
Source : GMATPrep Default Exam Pack

Originally posted by seofah on 05 Dec 2008, 15:21.
Last edited by Bunuel on 23 Jan 2019, 07:18, edited 9 times in total.
Edited the question.
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Re: Yeasts capable of leavening bread are widespread, and in the many cent  [#permalink]

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New post 30 Jul 2013, 17:18
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smartmanav wrote:
Y C is correct ? Can someone explain with proper convincing points plz ?


As I mentioned in my prior post, this question is asking you to strengthen the conclusion that the discovery of leavend bread was causally related to the introduction of the non-toasted wheat. Your answer needs to make a definitive connection between those two events.

A - Makes no connection between non-toasted wheat and leaven.
B - We are trying to connect non-toasting and leavening...the baking process after the fact is not relevant.
C - This answer perfectly connects the non-toasting with the leavening. Before, when wheat was toasted, the gluten was destroyed, preventing the bread from leavining. With the new, non-toasted wheat, the gluten is present and the leavening process can take place.
D - This answer does not connect non-toasting with leaven.
E - Again, no connection made between non-toasting and leaven.

[Sorry for the delayed response here, we have a brand new baby at home and he's keeping me away from the computer :) ]

KW

Yeasts capable of leavening bread are widespread, and in the many centuries
during which the ancient Egyptians made only unleavened bread, such yeasts must
frequently have been mixed into bread doughs accidentally. The Egyptians,
however, did not discover leavened bread until about 3000 B. C. That discovery
roughly coincided with the introduction of a wheat variety that was preferable to
previous varieties because its edible kernel could be removed from the husk
without first toasting the grain.

Which of the following, if true, provides the strongest evidence that the two
developments were causally related?
A. Even after the ancient Egyptians discovered leavened bread and the techniques
for reliably producing it were well known, unleavened bread continued to be
widely consumed.
B. Only when the Egyptians stopped the practice grain were their stonelined
grain-toasting pits available for baking bread.
C. Heating a wheat kernel destroys its gluten, a protein that must be present in order
for yeast to leaven bread dough.
D. The new variety of wheat, which had a more delicate flavor because it was not
toasted, was reserved for the consumption of high officials when it first began
to be grown.
E. Because the husk of the new variety of wheat was more easily removed, flour
Made from it required less effort to produce.
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Re: Yeasts capable of leavening bread are widespread, and in the many cent  [#permalink]

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New post 22 Sep 2012, 23:35
Y C is correct ? Can someone explain with proper convincing points plz ?
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Re: Yeasts capable of leavening bread are widespread, and in the many cent  [#permalink]

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New post 27 Jul 2013, 08:19
What's the difficulty level for this question? I couldn't figure out what question stem it was?
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Re: Yeasts capable of leavening bread are widespread, and in the many cent  [#permalink]

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New post 27 Jul 2013, 14:55
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fozzzy wrote:
What's the difficulty level for this question? I couldn't figure out what question stem it was?


Tough to peg a difficulty level on questions. This one is tricky but manageable when you understand the question.

Understanding the question type is tricky because the question includes logical words (causal) that don't tie to a question type. The type is actually 'strengthen the conclusion' but the conclusion can be hard to find because its hidden in the question. The conclusion is that there is a causal relationship between the introduction of the non-toasted wheat and bread leavening.

I'll review the options when I get back to a computer.

KW

Posted from my mobile device
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Re: Yeasts capable of leavening bread are widespread, and in the many cent  [#permalink]

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New post 30 Jul 2013, 21:18
Yeasts capable of leavening bread are widespread, and in the many centuries
during which the ancient Egyptians made only unleavened bread, such yeasts must
frequently have been mixed into bread doughs accidentally. The Egyptians,
however, did not discover leavened bread until about 3000 B. C. That discovery
roughly coincided with the introduction of a wheat variety that was preferable to
previous varieties because its edible kernel could be removed from the husk
without first toasting the grain.

Which of the following, if true, provides the strongest evidence that the two
developments were causally related?
A. Even after the ancient Egyptians discovered leavened bread and the techniques
for reliably producing it were well known, unleavened bread continued to be
widely consumed.
it weakens the argument


B. Only when the Egyptians stopped the practice grain were their stonelined
grain-toasting pits available for baking bread.
not relevant

C. Heating a wheat kernel destroys its gluten, a protein that must be present in order
for yeast to leaven bread dough.
correct

D. The new variety of wheat, which had a more delicate flavor because it was not
toasted, was reserved for the consumption of high officials when it first began
to be grown.
it does not help to provide the causal relation between the two developments

E. Because the husk of the new variety of wheat was more easily removed, flour
Made from it required less effort to produce.
not relevant
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Yeasts capable of leavening bread are widespread, and in the many cent  [#permalink]

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New post 23 Feb 2019, 10:23
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seofah wrote:
Yeasts capable of leavening bread are widespread, and in the many centuries during which the ancient Egyptians made only unleavened bread, such yeasts must frequently have been mixed into bread doughs accidentally. The Egyptians, however, did not discover leavened bread until about 3000 B. C. That discovery roughly coincided with the introduction of a wheat variety that was preferable to previous varieties because its edible kernel could be removed from the husk without first toasting the grain.

Which of the following, if true, provides the strongest evidence that the two developments were causally related?


(A) Even after the ancient Egyptians discovered leavened bread and the techniques for reliably producing it were well known, unleavened bread continued to be widely consumed.

(B) Only when the Egyptians stopped the practice grain were their stonelined grain-toasting pits available for baking bread.

(C) Heating a wheat kernel destroys its gluten, a protein that must be present in order for yeast to leaven bread dough.

(D) The new variety of wheat, which had a more delicate flavor because it was not toasted, was reserved for the consumption of high officials when it first began to be grown.

(E) Because the husk of the new variety of wheat was more easily removed, flour made from it required less effort to produce.


Source : GMAT Paper Set 19
Source : GMATPrep Default Exam Pack


as a non native I have no chance to understand the passage. No one knows all the important words like yeast, kernel, husk leavened dough and so on. How is it important to a MBA application test, how good my vocabulary in the field of baking is? I could not use my analytical skills because I just coudnt understand a word of that passage!? Usually I get 80% or more right in CR, but as a non native there is no chance to get this CR correct. Except you work in a multinational bakery I guess haha. Sorry for my comment but it just frustrates me.
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Re: Yeasts capable of leavening bread are widespread, and in the many cent  [#permalink]

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New post 23 Apr 2019, 05:47
I am confused about the statement, "in the many centuries during which the ancient Egyptians made only unleavened bread, such yeasts must frequently have been mixed into bread doughs accidentally, such yeasts must frequently have been mixed into bread doughs accidentally".

Does it mean that the ancient Egyptians made unleavened bread but got leavened bread by accident?
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Re: Yeasts capable of leavening bread are widespread, and in the many cent  [#permalink]

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New post 06 Jun 2019, 04:08
2
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Divad wrote:
seofah wrote:
Yeasts capable of leavening bread are widespread, and in the many centuries during which the ancient Egyptians made only unleavened bread, such yeasts must frequently have been mixed into bread doughs accidentally. The Egyptians, however, did not discover leavened bread until about 3000 B. C. That discovery roughly coincided with the introduction of a wheat variety that was preferable to previous varieties because its edible kernel could be removed from the husk without first toasting the grain.

Which of the following, if true, provides the strongest evidence that the two developments were causally related?


(A) Even after the ancient Egyptians discovered leavened bread and the techniques for reliably producing it were well known, unleavened bread continued to be widely consumed.

(B) Only when the Egyptians stopped the practice grain were their stonelined grain-toasting pits available for baking bread.

(C) Heating a wheat kernel destroys its gluten, a protein that must be present in order for yeast to leaven bread dough.

(D) The new variety of wheat, which had a more delicate flavor because it was not toasted, was reserved for the consumption of high officials when it first began to be grown.

(E) Because the husk of the new variety of wheat was more easily removed, flour made from it required less effort to produce.


Source : GMAT Paper Set 19
Source : GMATPrep Default Exam Pack


as a non native I have no chance to understand the passage. No one knows all the important words like yeast, kernel, husk leavened dough and so on. How is it important to a MBA application test, how good my vocabulary in the field of baking is? I could not use my analytical skills because I just coudnt understand a word of that passage!? Usually I get 80% or more right in CR, but as a non native there is no chance to get this CR correct. Except you work in a multinational bakery I guess haha. Sorry for my comment but it just frustrates me.



Hey, its not necessary to know such words..
just try to understand the logic of the sentence.
Some people, tried making something, but accidentally they made something else.. they didn't know about that, until and unless some other thing came up, which had specific characteristics, one of them is "without first toasting the grain." = heating

C) says, Heating (a wheat kernel) destroys its gluten, (a protein that must be present in order for yeast to leaven bread dough.)

Other choices aren't that closely talking about "heating"

Also, the expert from Manhattan has told us a lot, which can help us eliminate most of the other choices, and understand this question very well
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Re: Yeasts capable of leavening bread are widespread, and in the many cent  [#permalink]

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New post 06 Jun 2019, 04:10
MartinTao wrote:
I am confused about the statement, "in the many centuries during which the ancient Egyptians made only unleavened bread, such yeasts must frequently have been mixed into bread doughs accidentally, such yeasts must frequently have been mixed into bread doughs accidentally".

Does it mean that the ancient Egyptians made unleavened bread but got leavened bread by accident?



I have broken down the argument, in the simplest form I could, hope that helps you too.
and yes you are right, it means they did something, but by accident, they didn't know it was happening, until something else ( a new discovery) came up.
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Re: Yeasts capable of leavening bread are widespread, and in the many cent  [#permalink]

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New post 06 Jun 2019, 10:27
Only C Option provides relation between wheat and Yeast
One process leads to other for final completion
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Re: Yeasts capable of leavening bread are widespread, and in the many cent  [#permalink]

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New post 27 Jul 2019, 10:55
seofah wrote:
Yeasts capable of leavening bread are widespread, and in the many centuries during which the ancient Egyptians made only unleavened bread, such yeasts must frequently have been mixed into bread doughs accidentally. The Egyptians, however, did not discover leavened bread until about 3000 B. C. That discovery roughly coincided with the introduction of a wheat variety that was preferable to previous varieties because its edible kernel could be removed from the husk without first toasting the grain.

Which of the following, if true, provides the strongest evidence that the two developments were causally related?


(A) Even after the ancient Egyptians discovered leavened bread and the techniques for reliably producing it were well known, unleavened bread continued to be widely consumed.

(B) Only when the Egyptians stopped the practice grain were their stonelined grain-toasting pits available for baking bread.

(C) Heating a wheat kernel destroys its gluten, a protein that must be present in order for yeast to leaven bread dough.

This qn requires more time to figure out ,during exam duration, why option c is correct,however this one is very easy to elliminate all except option c,even if you dont know the actual cause ,because the rest options are useless kind of.
the reason for which option c is correct because before the arrival of wheat crust ,the egyptians used to bake them and as option c says the very process destroys its gluten part ,in which yeasts survives.that means yeast might have been present but could not take part in leavening process,for which the egyptians used to take unleavened breads.very soon after the arrival of wheat ,they didnt have to roast that for bread prep and hence yeast started its original action,the surprising action must have derived the concept of bread leavening.


(D) The new variety of wheat, which had a more delicate flavor because it was not toasted, was reserved for the consumption of high officials when it first began to be grown.

(E) Because the husk of the new variety of wheat was more easily removed, flour made from it required less effort to produce.


Source : GMAT Paper Set 19
Source : GMATPrep Default Exam Pack
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Re: Yeasts capable of leavening bread are widespread, and in the many cent   [#permalink] 27 Jul 2019, 10:55
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