Bunuel wrote:
A prolonged period of low mortgage rates resulted in a period of the most robust home sales ever. At the same time, the average sale price of resale homes actually dropped, when adjusted for inflation.
Which of the following, if true, would explain the apparent contradiction between the robust home sales and the drop in the average sale price of resale homes?
(A) The inflation rate during this period exceeded the increase in the average salary, thus preventing many buyers from securing mortgages.
(B) Resale homes represent the best value on the real estate market.
(C) Without the adjustment for inflation, the price of resale homes actually increased by a very slight amount.
(D) The decrease in mortgage rates was accompanied by a widening of the types of mortgages from which borrowers could choose.
(E) The increase in home sales was due entirely to an increase in the sale of new homes.
Low M/g rate (long time) ---> Sales ↑
Avg Sale Price ↓ (Less : Inflation) {Avg Sale Price = (Highest Sale Price + Lowest Price)/2}
2 Points mentioned -
1. Sales ↑
2. Avg Sale Price ↓ (Possible only when the higher value decreases compared to the previous year)
(A) increase in the average salary - Out of scope.
(B) the best value on the real estate market - We are concerned about decrease in price not best value, hence out of scope rejected.
(C) Without the adjustment for inflation & increased by a very slight amount - We have no information to comment on the same.
(D) widening of the types of mortgages from which borrowers could choose - Not mentioned, we can not comment on the same, hence rejected.
The answer will hence be (E) , an increase in the sale of new homes (At lower sale price compared to previous year)