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24 Feb 2019, 02:03
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I recently gave Gmatprep mock 2 and scored 690 (q51 v31). I have found that same sectional score can reflect 670 and 680 also in some other cases. Can someone explain the reason for the difference?
Thanks,
Raghav
Posted from my mobile device
Thanks,
Raghav
Posted from my mobile device
24 Feb 2019, 02:18
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raghavrf
The first and the best advice someone can give you regarding this matter is " Don't worry too much about such scoring patterns. It will make you crazy and still you will not get the answer.
For your question, every quant and verbal score reflects some upper or lower limits. I mean to say you can score q 51 if you get 1 or 2 questions wrong or by without doing any question wrong. This sets your score limit that even after getting same score individual sections your total score may differ.
Q 51 (2 questions wrong) V 31 (10 questions wrong) 670
Q 51 ( 1 question wrong) V 31 ( 11 questions wrong) 680
Q 51 ( 0 question wrong) V 31 ( 10 questions wrong) 690
There may be n number of factors that govern your GMAT score. I just touched one.
24 Feb 2019, 03:54
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raghavrf
The differences that you see are due to the way the GMAT calculates and reports scores.
1. The GMAT generates a score at the end of both the quantitative and verbal sections. These scores are on a continuous scale.
2. These scores are mapped onto an internal scale. Let's call these scores "internal scores".
3. These internal scores are combined to arrive at a total (internal) score.
4. All these scores are then converted to the scaled scores that are exposed to the test taker (6 to 51 for quant and verbal, and 200-800 for the total).
The internal scales are slightly more accurate than the ones exposed to you. For example, let's say two people got a Q49 each. Now, a Q49 could indicate a performance level anywhere between 74% and 85% (Q50 is 85%), so it's entirely possible that one of them got a "low" Q49 and the other got a "high" Q49. This is the reason that you don't always see the same total for the same score combinations.
