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GMATCLUB VERBAL ATTACK

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GMATCLUB VERBAL ATTACK  [#permalink]

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New post 17 Sep 2012, 11:47
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GMATCLUB VERBAL ATTACK



Hello all
I got my first 760 on MGMAT CAT 2 so I am extremely happy.
With that happiness I have decided to take a break, devoting my time entirely into gmatclub.

So here is what we are going to do
Each week On this forum we will discuss one main topic of Verbal and go over as much we can, covering everything we can share, including resources and questions.


Update:

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WEEK 1: CRITICAL REASONING STRENGTHEN/WEAKEN Questions  [#permalink]

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New post 17 Sep 2012, 11:56
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WEEK 1: Strengthen/Weaken/Evaluate the Argument


STRATEGY : Strengthen Question


Which of the following strengthens/ supports/ most justifies/ helps…

     Ask to support conclusion/argument in any way- answer can support in a minor or major way!
     Stimulus will always be an argument- since you can only strengthen a conclusion, not a fact set. Identify, isolate and assess the premises and conclusion.
     Focus on conclusion.
     Information in stimulus is suspect. Reasoning errors are present which can be corrected by answer choice.
     Strong prephrases possible
     Answer choices can bring new information which is not present in stimulus.
     While an assumption is necessary to the argument, a strengthen answer might not be essential for the argument to be true.
     The correct answer will , at least somewhat, venture outside the scope of the immediate argument (i.e. introduce something new)

How to strengthen?

    • Identify the conclusion – your answer choice should help the author and his conclusion
    • Personalize the argument- place yourself inside the situation and think how you will react.
    • Look for weaknesses in the argument – any gap, hole- that is tailor made to be eliminated as a correct strengthen answer.
    • An answer that highlights an assumption of the author will also strengthen the author’s conclusion
    • If the argument stimulus talks of a survey, poll- any answer choice which highlights its soundness or establishes its credibility will be correct.
    • Correct answer can strengthen just a little or a lot!


Correct answer will strengthen by:

    • Fixing a weakness of the conclusion
    • Validate an assumption made by argument
    • Introduce additional supporting evidence

Incorrect answer types:

    • Opposite answers: Weaken
    • Shell Game answers: idea form stimulus altered a little to be wrong
    • Out of scope answer: miss the point/conclusion
Whenever a stimulus starts with word ‘Advertisement:’ it will have flawed logic. Be prepared to look out for the gap and address that.


Causality and Strengthen Question


    • Eliminate alternate causes
    • Show that when the cause occurs, effect occurs
    • Show that when the effect is there, cause has occurred
    • Show that reverse is not true
    • Show that statistical data behind the cause effect conclusion is correct
    • Show that when cause doesn’t occur, effect doesn’t occur

In StrnegthenX questions, correct answer choice will mostly have no effect on the argument, or will be out of scope. Be cautious sometimes the answer choice which strengthens the argument is wrongly selected if it strengthens by eliminating an alternate cause which doesn’t occur in stimulus. There is tendency to think that it is out of scope and doesn’t strengthen. E.g. in a question that argues that amphibian population is decreasing because of ozone depletion, an answer choice that their natural habitat is not depleting is not out of scope- but strengthening by eliminating alternate cause of fall in population


BEST APPROACH: SIMPLIFY THE ARGUMENT INTO 1-2 STATEMENTS, and apply choice ONLY to simplified argument. Many choices that seemed relevant otherwise will now not be relevant!


GMATPREP EXAMPLE

Q. Excavation of the ancient city of Kourion on the island of Cyprus revealed a pattern of debris and collapsed buildings typical of towns devestated by earthquakes. Archaeologists have hypothesized that the destruction was due to a major earthquake known to have occured near the island in A.D. 365. Which of the following, if true, most strongly supports the archaeologists' hypothesis?
(A) Bronze ceremonial drinking vessals that are often found in graves dating from years preceding and following A.D. 365 were also found in several graves near Kourion.
(B) No coins minted after A.D. 365 were foundin Kourion, but coins minted before that year were found in abundance
(C) Most modern histories of Cyprus mention that an earthquake occured near the island in A.D. 365.
(D) Several small statues carved in styles current in Cyprus in the century between A.D. 300 and 400 were found in Kourion.
(E) Stone inscriptions in a form of the Greek alphabet that was definitely used in Cyrpus after A.D. 365 were found in Kourion

Simplified: an earthquake destroyed city. The earthquake happened in year 365. C says that the earthquake happened – that doesn’t strengthen, this is already known to have occurred from the question stem. Reiterate something that is already known – DOES NOT strengthen.

B pinpoints the date at year 365. Correct.


Notes Credit: Vivesomnium, Ron Purewal, Powerscore CR Bible, GMATPrep 2.0

QUESTION SET STRENGTHEN



1. The United States government uses only a household’s cash income before taxes to determine whether that
household falls below the poverty line in a given year; capital gains, non-cash government benefits, and tax credits
are not included. However, yearly cash income is not a fool-proof measure of a given household’s disposable
income. For example, retirees who live off of capital gains from an extensive portfolio could earn hundreds of
thousands of dollars, yet be classified by the government as living in “poverty” because this income is not included
in the calculation. Which of the following, if true, validates the contention that the government’s calculation methods
must be altered in order to provide statistics that measure true poverty?
• For more than 99% of those classified as living in poverty, yearly cash income comprises the vast majority of each
household’s disposable income.
• While the government’s calculation method indicated a 12.5% poverty rate in 2003, the same calculation method
indicated anywhere from a 9% to a 16% poverty rate during the preceding decade.
• Most established research studies conducted by the private sector indicate that the number of people truly living in
poverty in the U.S. is less than that indicated by the government’s calculation method.
• Several prominent economists endorse an alternate calculation method which incorporates all income, not just
cash income, and adjusts for taxes paid and other core expenses.
• The government’s calculation method also erroneously counts those who do not earn income in a given year but
who have substantial assets on which to live during that year.

Spoiler: :: Question 1 Answer & Explanation
OA: C
The conclusion of the argument is that the government's calculation methods
must be altered in order to provide statistics that measure true poverty. To
support this position, the author first explains how the government’s method
works and then introduces a hypothetical example that would return a "false
positive" - that is, a person who has a large income, yet is classified by the
government as living in poverty. One example, however, is generally not enough
to invalidate an entire method; no method is perfect and there are always a few
results that are not consistent with the overall conclusion. In order to validate, or
strengthen, the conclusion, we need to show that the government’s method is
fundamentally inferior to some alternative that would produce more valid results.

(A) This choice weakens the argument by minimizing the importance of the
author's evidence (the hypothetical retiree with capital gains). According to this
choice, the use of cash income to designate poverty levels is a very sound
method because it provides valid results for more than 99% of those classified as
living in poverty.

(B) This choice shows that the government’s method provided a wide range of
results for the poverty rate over a certain period of time, but it is irrelevant to the
argument at hand. It tells us nothing about whether the method provides relevant
statistics in any given year.

(C) CORRECT. If this statement is true, then the government’s calculation
method seems to overstate the number of people living in poverty, while the
various private sector studies generally agree with each other that the number of
people is lower. Thus, the methods used in the private sector are likely to be
more valid than the government’s method, lending credence to the author's
contention that the government’s method should change.

(D) Although this choice provides an example of people who might agree with the
conclusion (several prominent economists), this choice provides no evidence that
the alternate method they endorse would provide more relevant statistics than
the government’s method.

(E) This choice adds another hypothetical example of how the current method
could include someone in the poverty count who does not actually live in poverty.
It does not, however, address whether there are other calculation methods that
are more accurate than the government’s method.



2. Historically, the drug industry promoted its products to physicians by educating them in their offices or at industry
conferences. In the last 10 years, it has become much more commonplace for drug companies to advertise
prescription drugs directly to consumers, via television advertising and other media. Some public health advocates
have become concerned that patients, encouraged by advertising, may pursue the use of prescription drugs that
may be inappropriate for the individual patient or situation. However, since physicians must prescribe these
medications, there is no reason for such concern. Which of the following pieces of information would be most
helpful in addressing the concern articulated by the public health advocates?
• Certain over-the-counter medications are as effective for many common medical conditions as more powerful
nonprescription medications.
• Prescription medication television advertisements directed at the general public only appear on certain programs
and are not seen by many potential consumers.
• Physicians are also subject to prescription drug advertisements that are directed toward consumers.
• Physicians are not susceptible to pressure from patients in determining appropriate courses of treatment, including
drug prescriptions.
• Prescription medicines have been proven to be safe and effective treatments for many patient conditions.


Spoiler: :: Question 2 Answer & Explanation
The public health advocates are concerned that patients are subjected to
advertisements about prescription drugs, and may pursue these drugs even
though the drugs may not be clinically appropriate. It is argued that, because
physicians must prescribe the drugs in question, patient pursuit of these
prescription drugs is irrelevant. However, patients who pursue and request
particular prescription drugs may be able to encourage or induce a physician to
prescribe drugs that he or she might not have in the absence of such
encouragement.

(A) The clinical efficacy of certain over-the-counter medications does not address
the public health advocates’ concern regarding patient pursuit of inappropriate
prescription drugs.

(B) The public health advocates’ concern does not rely on every possible
consumer to see the advertisements for prescription medications. It is enough
that some consumers see the advertisements.

(C) This answer choice states the obvious possibility that physicians may also
see the advertisements for prescription drugs directed toward consumers. This is
irrelevant to the concern expressed by the public health advocates.

(D) CORRECT. This answer choice directly addresses the public health
advocates’ concern by establishing that physicians are not susceptible to patient
pressure in prescribing inappropriate drugs. As a result, drugs will be prescribed
according to the objective clinical judgment of the prescribing physician,
mitigating the danger of inappropriate use.

(E) That certain prescription medications are safe and effective treatments for
many conditions does not address the concern of inappropriate use expressed
by the public health advocates. Prescription drugs can be safe and effective
when used for certain conditions by various individuals and still be subject to
unhealthy use by other patients.



3. Studies in restaurants show that the tips left by customers who pay their bill tend to be larger when the bill is
presented with the server’s name hand-written on the bill. Psychologists hypothesize that simply seeing a hand-written name makes many consumers feel more of a personal identification with the server, encouraging larger
tips. Which of the following, if true, most strongly supports the psychologists’ interpretation of the studies?
• The effect noted in the studies applies to patrons paying with either credit cards or cash.
• Nametags for servers have not been shown to have any effect on the size of the bill.
• Greeting card companies have found that charities which send holiday cards with handwritten signatures are more
likely to receive donations than those which send cards with printed signatures.
• The studies indicated much larger average tips if the customer ordered alcoholic beverages with his or her meal.
• Many of the restaurants in which the studies were conducted are located in tourist areas, where people are
traveling for leisure activities.


4. Analyst: The pace of technological development brings a constant stream of new devices to the market, and many
of them enjoy commercial success. But announcing new technology too soon after the introduction of a successful
device can backfire. Once consumers hear about the new device, they may stop buying the one currently on sale.
So, if a company wishes to announce the upcoming sale of a new device, it should wait until purchases of the old
device have begun to decline. Which of the following, if true, would best support the analyst’s main assertion?
• New technology often becomes less expensive after an initial surge in sales.
• Media outlets, such as television programs and magazines, often report on the planned introduction of new
devices while the sales of old devices are still strong.
• Many consumers are unable to determine whether new technology is superior to current technology.
• Surveys have shown that some consumers make only one or two technology purchases per year, whereas others
make more frequent purchases.
• Consumers tend to be loyal to technology companies whose products they enjoy using.


5. More and more companies have begun to consume less energy by making themselves more efficient. Over time,
these efforts could place the United States at the forefront of an emerging global market for cleaner technologies.
Such efforts are also essential to tackling the two big energy-related issues of the age: global warming and the
dependence on precarious supplies of oil. The federal government should encourage these efforts by providing the
necessary incentives, whether as loans, direct grants or targeted tax breaks. Which of the following, if true,
provides the most effective support for the argument?
• On the average, Canadian companies are more energy efficient than those in the United States.
• Experts believe that energy efficiency could lower the energy use of the United States to the level of 1995.
• In the past, government incentives have made advances in energy conservation feasible, especially in the auto
industry.
• The dependence on foreign oil is a greater problem in the present than global warming.
• The market for cleaner technologies is currently relatively small because of the infrastructure requirements.


6. State X recently decided to cut state funding for the public library system in County X. To help counteract this cut
in funding, the county library system has increased library late fees from $.10 per day to $.12 per day. Since the
fee increase, library administrators have seen no decline in the number of overdue books. The director of the
county library system concludes that the fee hike has helped to counteract the cut in state funding. Which of the
following statements, if true, most strengthens the director’s claim?
• Since the fee increase, library administrators have noted a significant decrease in the number of books borrowed
each day.
• The library system incurred minor costs to make its visitors aware of the late fee increase.
• Since the fee increase, there has been no significant change in the average number of days that books are
overdue before they are returned.
• The library system in County X tracks its books through a very advanced database system, allowing library
administrators to have access to very accurate statistics on the number of overdue books at any given time.
• Since the reduction in state funding, the library system in County X has eliminated 10% of its staff, creating a 2%
reduction in costs.


7. In the 18th and 19th centuries, it was believed in many coastal American cities that the waterfront was an
undesirable location for residential buildings. As a result, much of the waterfront in these cities was never developed
aesthetically and instead was left to industry and commerce. Today, however, waterfront properties are generally
seen as prestigious, as evidenced by the large sums paid for homes along the beach front. A developer who
wishes to make a large profit would be wise to buy urban waterfront lots and erect residential buildings on them.
Which of the following, if true, most strongly supports the claim made about urban waterfront properties?
• People today have more money, relatively speaking, to spend on real estate than they did in previous centuries.
• Homeowners will be willing to spend large sums on residential properties in traditionally industrial or commercial
districts.
• Many urban waterfront lots are available for purchase.
• Many coastal American cities are encouraging developers to rehabilitate the waterfront through tax incentives.
• Properties in interior residential districts in coastal American cities are significantly more expensive than those
along the waterfront.


8. Charter schools are independent public schools that are given greater autonomy in exchange for increased
accountability. Charter school operators are freed from many of the regulations of the traditional public school
bureaucracy, thereby allowing them to pursue more innovative educational ideas than non-charter public schools
can pursue. At the same time, charter schools are held accountable for achieving specific educational outcomes
and are closed down if those outcomes are not met. Which of the following, if true, best supports the assertion
that students attending charter schools will, on average, perform better on assessments of writing ability than
students attending traditional public schools?
• Students who attend schools that emphasize order and discipline perform worse on assessments of writing ability
than students who attend schools that do not emphasize order and discipline.
• The majority of students who score in the 99th percentile on assessments of writing ability attend charter schools.
• Public schools that operate outside of the traditional public school bureaucracy spend more time teaching students
writing than do traditional public schools.
• Students who attend schools that are allowed to experiment with their writing curricula perform better on
assessments of writing ability than students who attend schools that have less flexible curricula.
• There are far more students attending non-charter public schools than students attending charter schools.


9. Officials of the Youth Hockey League and parents of players in the league have become concerned with the number
of flagrant fouls occurring during league games. This past season, the number of flagrant fouls was double the
number from the season before. League officials plan to reduce the number of such fouls during the coming
season by implementing mandatory suspensions for players who commit flagrant fouls. Which of the following
statements, if true, provides the best evidence that the officials’ plan will be effective?
• Most serious injuries occurring during league games are a direct result of flagrant fouls.
• League referees have been trained to recognize flagrant fouls and to report incidents involving such fouls.
• Parents of players in the league are in support of mandatory suspensions for flagrant fouls.
• A similar league suspends players for committing flagrant fouls; this league has a relatively low incidence of
flagrant fouls when compared with the Youth Hockey League.
• Most players in the league strive to be selected for the All-Star team, and league rules state that no player with a
record of suspension shall be selected for the All-Star team.


10. Almost every modern kitchen today is equipped with a microwave oven, mainly because microwave ovens offer a
fast and convenient way of cooking and reheating food. Indeed, it has become a standard appliance in most
households. Studies have shown, however, that microwave ovens are not completely safe and their use has
occasionally resulted in serious injury. Because of this, some consumer advocates argue that microwave ovens
should not be so readily accepted as a standard appliance until they can be certified to be completely safe. Which
of the following, if true, would most strengthen the argument of the consumer advocates?
• Microwave ovens have taken much of the joy out of cooking.
• There have been many reported incidences of people who have been scalded by liquids superheated in microwave
ovens.
• Absolute safety is the only criterion by which an appliance should be judged to be acceptable as “standard.”
• There is no such thing as a completely safe appliance.
• Stoves and ovens that use natural gas consume energy much more efficiently than microwave ovens.

OAs in 24 Hours followed by a set of 10 700-800 level WEAKEN questions

Please discuss solutions and other questions in this area.
Lets make this our very own verbal workbook
Cheers.

Next Week's Topic


Inference and Boldface
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Senior Manager
Senior Manager
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Joined: 11 May 2011
Posts: 342
Re: GMATCLUB VERBAL ATTACK  [#permalink]

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New post 18 Sep 2012, 01:23
My answers are listed below. I took 24 min for all of them.
C D C E C C B D E B.
I got 2 of them wrong. One wrong answer is acceptable but other one is not.
Also, we must discuss question 4 because i'm not happy with the explanation floating around for that one.

Cheers!
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Re: GMATCLUB VERBAL ATTACK  [#permalink]

Show Tags

New post 18 Sep 2012, 03:16
3
3

STRENGTHEN SET OFFICIAL EXPLANATIONS


Answer KEYS
CDCBCCBDEC

1.
The conclusion of the argument is that the government's calculation methods
must be altered in order to provide statistics that measure true poverty. To
support this position, the author first explains how the government’s method
works and then introduces a hypothetical example that would return a "false
positive" - that is, a person who has a large income, yet is classified by the
government as living in poverty. One example, however, is generally not enough
to invalidate an entire method; no method is perfect and there are always a few
results that are not consistent with the overall conclusion. In order to validate, or
strengthen, the conclusion, we need to show that the government’s method is
fundamentally inferior to some alternative that would produce more valid results.

(A) This choice weakens the argument by minimizing the importance of the
author's evidence (the hypothetical retiree with capital gains). According to this
choice, the use of cash income to designate poverty levels is a very sound
method because it provides valid results for more than 99% of those classified as
living in poverty.

(B) This choice shows that the government’s method provided a wide range of
results for the poverty rate over a certain period of time, but it is irrelevant to the
argument at hand. It tells us nothing about whether the method provides relevant
statistics in any given year.

(C) CORRECT. If this statement is true, then the government’s calculation
method seems to overstate the number of people living in poverty, while the
various private sector studies generally agree with each other that the number of
people is lower. Thus, the methods used in the private sector are likely to be
more valid than the government’s method, lending credence to the author's
contention that the government’s method should change.

(D) Although this choice provides an example of people who might agree with the
conclusion (several prominent economists), this choice provides no evidence that
the alternate method they endorse would provide more relevant statistics than
the government’s method.

(E) This choice adds another hypothetical example of how the current method
could include someone in the poverty count who does not actually live in poverty.
It does not, however, address whether there are other calculation methods that
are more accurate than the government’s method.

2.
The public health advocates are concerned that patients are subjected to
advertisements about prescription drugs, and may pursue these drugs even
though the drugs may not be clinically appropriate. It is argued that, because
physicians must prescribe the drugs in question, patient pursuit of these
prescription drugs is irrelevant. However, patients who pursue and request
particular prescription drugs may be able to encourage or induce a physician to
prescribe drugs that he or she might not have in the absence of such
encouragement.

(A) The clinical efficacy of certain over-the-counter medications does not address
the public health advocates’ concern regarding patient pursuit of inappropriate
prescription drugs.

(B) The public health advocates’ concern does not rely on every possible
consumer to see the advertisements for prescription medications. It is enough
that some consumers see the advertisements.

(C) This answer choice states the obvious possibility that physicians may also
see the advertisements for prescription drugs directed toward consumers. This is
irrelevant to the concern expressed by the public health advocates.

(D) CORRECT. This answer choice directly addresses the public health
advocates’ concern by establishing that physicians are not susceptible to patient
pressure in prescribing inappropriate drugs. As a result, drugs will be prescribed
according to the objective clinical judgment of the prescribing physician,
mitigating the danger of inappropriate use.

(E) That certain prescription medications are safe and effective treatments for
many conditions does not address the concern of inappropriate use expressed
by the public health advocates. Prescription drugs can be safe and effective
when used for certain conditions by various individuals and still be subject to
unhealthy use by other patients.

3.
This argument concerns a potential explanation for larger tips on the part of
restaurant patrons. The explanation provided is that customers are more
generous toward servers that leave their hand-written name on the bill due to a
greater degree of personal identification with the server, which encourages larger
tips. The correct answer will either support the fact that a hand-written name
strengthens personal identification, or that personal identification encourages
larger tips.

(A) The fact that the effect applies equally regardless of the method of payment
is not relevant to the conclusion.

(B) The argument does not address the size of the bill; rather, it addresses the
size of the tip. This choice is irrelevant.

(C) CORRECT. This answer choice provides further evidence that a hand-written name or signature generates a greater form of personalization and
emotional connection among recipients, leading to more donations.

(D) The impact of alcoholic beverages on tipping behavior is irrelevant.

(E) The location of the restaurants and leisure pursuits of the patrons are
irrelevant to the argument.

4.
The conclusion is that a company should wait until purchases of an old device
have begun to decline before announcing a new device. The basis for this claim
is that consumers stop buying the old device. We are asked to strengthen the
argument.

(A) The typical drop in the price of new technology does not influence whether a
company should wait until sales of an old technology begin to decline before
introducing a new one.

(B) CORRECT. This choice states that media outlets such as television and
magazines often report on the planned introduction of new devices while sales of
old devices are still strong. The argument requires that consumers "hear about
the new device"; stories in the media provide a means for consumers to do so.

(C) If many consumers are unable to determine the superiority of new
technology, then they might be less swayed to wait for a new, recently
announced device than otherwise. As a result, this claim may be seen to weaken
the analyst's assertion.

(D) The number of technology purchases per year does not directly relate to this
argument. The argument is about waiting until the consumer demand declines
before announcing a new technology. However frequently consumers typically
purchase technology, some will be ready to buy the old device when news of the
upcoming device gets out -- and according to the argument, this news will cause
some of those consumers to wait.

(E) The passage makes no mention of whether the technologies belong to the
same company or different companies.

5.
The argument claims that federal incentives should be provided to encourage
energy efficiency. The argument also notes that companies are already working
in this direction and that this trend will ease the environmental and energy
pressures that currently trouble the world. Supporting this argument could involve
providing evidence of possible success for these efforts toward their goals.

(A) This choice is an irrelevant comparison. That Canadian companies are more
efficient has no bearing on efforts in the United States or the role of government
incentives.

(B) This choice does not strengthen the claim. Experts' claims are not the same
as reality. Furthermore, the choice does not say whether reducing energy use to
the 1995 level is a significant decrease, nor does it provide any information to
strengthen the link between government incentives and reduced energy use.

(C) CORRECT. This choice provides evidence that government incentives are
effective. Thus, this choice confirms an assumption that the conclusion is
feasible.

(D) This choice is an irrelevant distinction. It does not matter to the argument’s
conclusion if one of these issues is a greater problem than the other in the
present.

(E) The passage asserts that the United States should be at the forefront of an
emerging market for cleaner technologies; i.e., the market will be significant in
the future. The size of the market at present is irrelevant to the argument.


6.
The director concludes that the fee hike has helped to counteract the cut in state
funding. In other words, the director believes that increasing the late fees has led
to increased revenue from late fees. While the size of the fee itself is one
important factor, there are other factors that also have an effect on the amount of
revenue generated from late fees: the number of overdue books and the number
of days that books are overdue before they are returned. It’s very possible that
the fee increase would prompt more borrowers to return their books on time; this
would reduce the number of late fees being paid, reducing revenue from late
fees. Further, it’s possible that the fee increase would prompt more borrowers to
return their already overdue books sooner than they would otherwise. This would
reduce the average amount of each late fee, reducing revenue from late fees.
The argument explicitly states that there has been no decline in the number of
overdue books, but it says nothing about the number of days that books are
overdue before they are returned. A statement that rules out the possibility that
borrowers are returning their already overdue books sooner than they would
have if they were still being charged the original lower overdue fee would
strengthen the director’s claim.

(A) A decrease in the number of borrowed books has no bearing on the revenue
generated from late fees if the number of overdue books remains unchanged.
The question explicitly states that the number of overdue books has not changed.

(B) If anything, this statement weakens the argument. The costs incurred to
implement the new fees would cut into the revenue generated from these new
fees.

(C) CORRECT. This statement rules out the possibility that the library system is
losing revenue as a result of borrowers returning overdue books earlier than they
would otherwise.

(D) The argument has explicitly stated that the number of overdue books has not
changed. This is a stated premise that we must take as factual information,
regardless of the quality of the database being used to track such information.

(E) The elimination of other unrelated costs has no bearing on whether the library
system has successfully increased revenues through late fees.


7.
The conclusion is that a developer who wishes to make a large profit would be
wise to buy urban waterfront lots and erect residential buildings on them. The
basis for that claim is that people pay large sums for beach front homes. We are
asked to strengthen this argument.

(A) This choice states that people have more buying power today than in
previous centuries. This does not strengthen the claim that a developer will make
money on urban waterfront properties.

(B) CORRECT. This choice states that homeowners will be willing to spend large
sums of money on residential properties in traditionally industrial or commercial
districts. Since we know from the argument that urban waterfronts have
traditionally been industrial, this fact strengthens the claim that a developer can
make a profit on urban waterfront properties.

(C) This choice states that many urban waterfront lots are available for purchase.
This does not suggest, however, that a developer will be able to sell them after
he or she builds on them.

(D) This choice states that many coastal cities are giving tax breaks to
developers who rehabilitate the waterfront. But this does not suggest that anyone
will buy the developed properties.

(E) This choice states that properties in the interior of cities are more expensive
than those on the waterfront. Although waterfront properties are therefore
cheaper to acquire, this does not necessarily mean that a developer can make a
profit after buying such properties.

8.
The question asks for information that will support the conclusion that students
attending charter schools will, on average, perform better on assessments of
writing ability than students attending traditional public schools. The passage
specifies that charter schools differ from non-charter public schools in that
charter schools have more freedom to innovate and that they are held
accountable for meeting specific educational outcomes. One way to support the
conclusion is to demonstrate that one of the two differences cited between
charter and non-charter public schools is somehow tied to higher performance on
writing assessments.

(A) While the passage mentions that charter schools themselves are freed from
many regulations, no information is presented about any difference in emphasis
with respect to order and discipline between charter and non-charter public
schools. As such, it is impossible to tell whether this information would support
the conclusion in the question.

(B) This choice presents information only about those students who score at the
very highest level of the writing assessments. However, this presents no
information about the difference, on average, between all charter school students
and non-charter public school students. It is possible, for example, that while the
students who perform at the highest level on writing assessments are those who
attend charter schools, on average non-charter public school students perform
better.

(C) There is no necessary link between the amount of time spent teaching writing
and student performance on writing assessments. For example, a good teacher
who spends one hour teaching writing may have a more positive impact on
student performance than a poor teacher who spends three hours teaching
writing.

(D) CORRECT. The passage specifies that charter schools have more freedom
to pursue innovative educational ideas than non-charter public schools. It follows
that charter schools are allowed to experiment with their curricula to a greater
degree than non-charter public schools. This choice links this difference to higher
student achievement on assessments of writing ability.

(E) The number of students attending charter vs. non-charter schools has no
bearing on the conclusion. The conclusion focused on student performance on
average, thereby eliminating raw numbers of students as relevant to this
measure.



9.
League officials plan to reduce the number of flagrant fouls by implementing
mandatory suspensions for players who commit such fouls. This plan will work
only if the punishment serves to deter players from committing flagrant fouls.

(A) The cause of injuries has no bearing on whether suspensions will deter
players from committing flagrant fouls.

(B) While the referees’ effectiveness in recognizing and reporting flagrant fouls
will surely aid in the implementation of the new policy, this has no bearing on
whether the policy will deter players from committing flagrant fouls.

(C) The parents’ opinion has no bearing on whether the suspensions will deter
players from committing flagrant fouls.

(D) While we might conclude that the other, similar league has a low incidence of
flagrant fouls because it suspends players who commit such fouls, we have no
evidence to show that the suspensions actually deter players from committing
fouls. It is entirely possible that the other league has a low incidence of flagrant
fouls for other reasons. For example, maybe the players in the other league are
just inherently less aggressive.

(E) CORRECT. If players want to make the All-Star team, and if a record of
suspension precludes these players from being selected for the team, then
players are less likely to commit fouls that will lead to suspensions.


10.
The passage makes the premise that microwave ovens are not completely safe.
This is followed by a conclusion by the consumer advocates that microwave
ovens should not be accepted as standard appliances. Since there is nothing in
the passage that provides an explicit link between the safety of microwave ovens
and their acceptability as standard appliances, the consumer advocates’
conclusion is based on an assumption (i.e., an implied premise) that “an
appliance should be accepted as standard only if it is found to be completely
safe.” The most effective way to strengthen such a conclusion is to show that
such an assumption is indeed true.

(A) The strength of the consumer advocates’ argument hinges upon the link
between the level of safety of microwave ovens and the rationale for their
acceptance in the home. Any lack of joy in microwave cooking is not relevant to
the argument.

(B) Providing a specific example of how a person might be injured, even
seriously, by a microwave oven may provide emotional support for the consumer
advocates’ position, but does little to strengthen the argument logically: the
possibility of injury has already been stipulated as a premise.

(C) CORRECT. This choice best strengthens the argument by making explicit the
assumption upon which the consumer advocates’ argument was based.

(D) If no appliance is completely safe, then the consumer advocates’ argument is
absurb: no appliance is, or ever will be, acceptable as “standard” in a modern
kitchen. This choice weakens the conclusion.

(E) The relative energy efficiency of gas vs. microwave cooking is not relevant to
this argument.


Please feel free to post particular question doubts, and I will be happy to clarify as much as I can.
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Re: GMATCLUB VERBAL ATTACK  [#permalink]

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New post 18 Sep 2012, 03:18
Capricorn369 wrote:
My answers are listed below. I took 24 min for all of them.
C D C E C C B D E B.
I got 2 of them wrong. One wrong answer is acceptable but other one is not.
Also, we must discuss question 4 because i'm not happy with the explanation floating around for that one.

Cheers!


Please let me know which OA do you find debatable?
BTW All questions in this set are taken from MGMAT
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Re: GMATCLUB VERBAL ATTACK  [#permalink]

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New post 18 Sep 2012, 12:33
souvik101990 wrote:
Capricorn369 wrote:
My answers are listed below. I took 24 min for all of them.
C D C E C C B D E B.
I got 2 of them wrong. One wrong answer is acceptable but other one is not.
Also, we must discuss question 4 because i'm not happy with the explanation floating around for that one.

Cheers!


Please let me know which OA do you find debatable?
BTW All questions in this set are taken from MGMAT


I would like to discuss question number 4.
I'm not satisfied with the given OA/OE. Can someone illustrate?

Cheers!
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Re: GMATCLUB VERBAL ATTACK  [#permalink]

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New post 18 Sep 2012, 13:12
Capricorn369 wrote:
souvik101990 wrote:
Capricorn369 wrote:
My answers are listed below. I took 24 min for all of them.
C D C E C C B D E B.
I got 2 of them wrong. One wrong answer is acceptable but other one is not.
Also, we must discuss question 4 because i'm not happy with the explanation floating around for that one.

Cheers!


Please let me know which OA do you find debatable?
BTW All questions in this set are taken from MGMAT


I would like to discuss question number 4.
I'm not satisfied with the given OA/OE. Can someone illustrate?
Cheers!


4. Analyst: The pace of technological development brings a constant stream of new devices to the market, and many
of them enjoy commercial success. But announcing new technology too soon after the introduction of a successful
device can backfire. Once consumers hear about the new device, they may stop buying the one currently on sale.
So, if a company wishes to announce the upcoming sale of a new device, it should wait until purchases of the old
device have begun to decline. Which of the following, if true, would best support the analyst’s main assertion?
• New technology often becomes less expensive after an initial surge in sales.
• Media outlets, such as television programs and magazines, often report on the planned introduction of new
devices while the sales of old devices are still strong.
• Many consumers are unable to determine whether new technology is superior to current technology.
• Surveys have shown that some consumers make only one or two technology purchases per year, whereas others
make more frequent purchases.
• Consumers tend to be loyal to technology companies whose products they enjoy using.

Conclusion of this argument
So, if a company wishes to announce the upcoming sale of a new device, it should wait until purchases of the old
device have begun to decline

A. This has almost nothing to do with the argument as this is talking about the sales after the announcement and the release of the new device.
B. This seems to strengthen because if, according to the author, the company does not announce the new device, the media will have nothing to report and sales of the old device will remain strong.
C. As long as their indecisiveness doesn't hamper their buying tendencies, do we need to care?
D.This means almost everything. It means some people may buy the device while some people wont. In any case, we can draw much from this statement.
E. Loyalty can be proved both by purchasing new stuffs from the same company or by not purchasing anything at all(from that or any other company).

Hope this helps
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Re: GMATCLUB VERBAL ATTACK  [#permalink]

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New post 19 Sep 2012, 08:31
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Weaken Question Strategies



‘Which of the following.. weaken/undermine/challenge/refute/damage/counter..?’
Most frequently occurring GMAT CR question type

 Stimulus will be an argument, and it will always have a conclusion. Isolate and assess this conclusion, so as to be able to attack it. The key is to attack the conclusion.
 Argument will mostly have reasoning errors/gaps- Read carefully.
 Strong prephrasing possible. Speculate in your head possible answers before reading answer choices
 Answer choice CAN have new/external/out of stimulus’ scope information – they have to be accepted as true
 You don’t need to find an answer that destroys the argument completely – just one that WEAKENS/UNDERMINES it.
Correct answer choice
• Will make the author reconsider, or force him to respond.
• Will attack argument by:
o Attacking premise- rarely an answer choice, mostly only when premise is a sub conclusion
o Attacking conclusion – not simply contradicting, but undermining it by showing that it fails to consider some possibility- Shows that conclusions doesn’t follow from premises, even if premises are true.
• Answers that weaken conclusion will ATTACK ASSUMPTIONS behind the author’s argument.
Keys:
1. Don’t worry about the premises- focus on conclusion and find holes in the way the author has come to that conclusion.
2. Personalize the argument – if you are to challenge the author in a conversation, which option will you use?

 Stimulus will mostly have an error of assumption- will fail to account for some possibility, or will leave out some key piece of information.
 Correct answer choice will not require large logical leaps to be correct.
Most common errors/holes in the stimulus argument:
• Incomplete information- author fails to consider all possibilities/ relies upon incomplete evidence. Correct answer choice will bring up new possibility or information.
• Improper comparison – Author compares two or more different objects
• Qualified conclusion – Conclusion is not all inclusive – is limited in application and hence open to attack
Incorrect answer choice:
Opposite Answer: Strengthens instead of weaken
Shell Game Answer: Presents an idea similar to one in stimulus, but changed to be wrong
Out of Scope Answer: Misses the main point, raise unrelated/tangential issues- no tie to the conclusion- does bring in language from the conclusion, but doesn’t weaken it.
Answer Choice E is often used as a trap to put a highly attractive wrong answer. Reason is that if none of the 4 previous choices have jumped put as correct answer, you will be prone to choose E towards the end! Mostly Shell Game answers, which are wrong but appear true if you miss slight detail! Similarly, A is a trap answer choice if stimulus is difficult, as to get a hang of the stimulus; you usually tend to depend on reading first answer choice, and sub consciously believing it to be true! Beware!
Can be made more complicated by argument/counter argument kind of structure- two opposite points of view. Identify first which is the conclusion from author’s point of view.

CAUSE AND EFFECT: Causality in GMAT


Cause and Effect relationship form the basis of many Weaken, Strengthen, Flaw and Method CR Questions – Most tested logical concept in GMAT
Causality explains why something happened. When one event causes another. Cause happens before.
In GMAT most such conclusions are wrong because there are alternate explanations. Another cause caused the effect, third event caused both these events, situation is actually reversed, events are related but not causally, or the relation is just by chance- random.
How to recognize? When one event makes the other occur. Indicators like – caused by, leads to, because of, responsible for, reason for, induced by, promoted by, determined by, produced by, product of, played a role in, was a factor in, is an effect of.
Causality may be present in stimulus in two ways: premises, or conclusion. If causality is in premises, the argument is not likely to have reasoning errors. If causality is in conclusion, it is likely that the conclusion is flawed.
Why will causal relationships occur? When one event occurs before the other, or when two events occur simultaneously, it is often assumed that one event caused the other.
Central Assumption of Causal Relationships:
• Stated cause is the only possible cause of the effect. No other causes can create the same effect.
• Whenever the cause will occur, effect will occur
How to attack weaken questions with cause- effect relationship:
- Find an alternate cause for the effect
- Show that even when cause occurred, effect didn’t occur
- Show that even when effect occurred, cause didn’t occur
- Show that stated relationship is actually reverse- cause is effect and effect is cause
- Show that the statistical data used to draw the conclusion itself is wrong

The unemployment rate in the city jumped from 5 % to 9% last month. Therefore the local economy is in trouble.
The city has a large university that graduated 20000 students last month. Does this weaken?
Yes, as this provides as alternate reason for increased unemployment. Here we are assuming: a significant number of students stayed in the local area, and that not all of these graduates were immediately employed.
Remember, On Strengthen/ Weaken problem you need to interpret the statements is the MOST PROBABLE or MOST REASONABLE or COMMON SENSE way.
Use INTUITIVE THINKING
Make COMMON SENSE Assumptions: Interpret in Most probable, real word kind of way
Overall Argument much more important than details

GMATPrep Examples


Q. In Morigia the average age of cars that are still in use has historically been seven years, but now it is nearly nine years. Car manufacturers claim that the current poor economy has forced people to put off buying new cars, and thus when the economy improves, the average age of cars will return to former levels.
Which of the following, if true, most seriously calls into question the car manufacturers' prediction?
(A) Fewer cars per year are now being manufactured in Morigia than were being manufactured there five years ago.
(B) When the threat of job loss is particularly strong, people are reluctant to commit themselves to expensive purchases.
(C) The older a car is, the greater the amount of upkeep it requires.
(D) The air-pollution control devices now being used in cars manufactured in Morigia cost less than those that were used seven years ago.
(E) Most people in Morigia now believe that replacing an old car with a new one has very undesirable ecological consequences.
People are buying older cars on average. Manufacturers are saying that bad economy is the reason.
B actually strengthens.
C is a reason not to drive older cars, but people are still driving it. so the pros and cons of driving older cars is sort of irrelevant.
Answer: E

Q, Kernland imposes a high tariff on the export of unprocessed cashew nuts in order to ensure that the nuts are sold to domestic processing plants. If the tariff were lifted and unprocessed cashews were sold at world market prices, more farmers could profit by
growing cashews. However, since all the processing plants are in urban areas, removing the tariff would seriously hamper the government’s effort to reduce urban unemployment over the next five years. Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument?
A. Some of the by-products of processing cashews are used for manufacturing paints and plastics.
B. Other countries in which cashews are processed subsidize their processing plants.
C. More people in Kernland are engaged in farming cashews than in processing them.
D. Buying unprocessed cashews at lower than world market prices enables cashew processors in Kernland to sell processed nuts at competitive prices.
E. A lack of profitable crops is driving an increasing number of small farmers in Kernland off their land and into the cities.
If the tariff were removed, more farmers could profit but you couldn’t employ as many people as processing industry now employs.

Temporarily don’t think about whether it is strengthen or weaken and just evaluate the choices by themselves
E many of the farmers will be unemployed when they get to the cities (most probable interpretation). So if this is true then removing a tariff would mean that farmers will make profit, fewer will move to the city – less unemployment.
Answer: E

Northern Air has dozens of flights daily into and out of Belleville Airport, which is highly congested. Northern Air depends for its success on economy and quick turnaround and consequently is planning to replace its large planes with Skybuses, whose novel aerodynamic design is extremely fuel efficient. The Skybus’s fuel efficiency results in both lower fuel costs and reduced time spent refueling.

Q. Which of the following, if true, could present the most serious disadvantage for Northern Air in replacing their large planes with Skybuses?

(A) The Skybus would enable Northern Air to schedule direct flights to destinations that currently require stops for refueling.
(B) Aviation fuel is projected to decline in price over the next several years.
(C) The fuel efficiency of the Skybus would enable Northern Air to eliminate refueling at some of its destinations, but several mechanics would lose their jobs.
(D) None of Northern Air’s competitors that use Belleville Airport are considering buying Skybuses.
(E) The aerodynamic design of the Skybus causes turbulence behind it when taking off that forces other planes on the runway to delay their takeoffs.
We have to find whether the planes will get off the runway faster/ slower and more costly/ less costly.
A and C strengthen. B and D neutral.

Notes Credit: Vivesomnium, Ron Purewal, GMATPrep


WEAKEN QUESTION SET



1. A certain baseball team has just completed its season. In stadiums that seat 20,000 or fewer people, the team
averaged 1 home run per game; in stadiums that seat between 20,000 and 40,000 people, the team averaged 2
home runs per game; and, in stadiums that seat 40,000 or more people, the team averaged 3 home runs per
game. Obviously, the excitement of playing in front of large crowds motivated the team to hit more home runs.

Assuming that all stadiums during the season were filled to capacity, which of the following, if true, most undermines the argument above?

• The team’s leading home run hitter hit more home runs in mid-sized stadiums than in large stadiums.
• The fans in the larger stadiums often cheered against the team.
• The team averaged only 2 home runs per game when playing in the league’s largest stadium.
• In order to create seating for the additional fans, the outfield walls in the larger stadiums were constructed closer
to home base.
• The team’s announcer cited crowd noise as a major motivator for the team.

2. The recent decline in the employment rate was spurred by predictions of slow economic growth in the coming
year. However, those predictions would not have affected the employment rate if it had not been for the lack of
capital reserves of major industries. So if major industries increase their capital reserves, the employment rate
will not decline in the future.

Which of the following, if true, casts the most doubt on the validity of the argument above?

• Major industry foresaw the drop in employment.
• Some major industries had appreciable capital reserves.
• An increase in labor costs could adversely affect the employment rate.
• The government could pass legislation mandating that major industries set aside a fixed amount as capital reserves
every year.
• The drop in the employment rate was more severe this year than last.

3. Farmers in developing countries claim that the United States government, through farm subsidies, is responsible
for the artificially low global price of wheat. Because the U.S. government buys whatever wheat American farmers
are unable to sell on the open market, American farmers have no incentive to modulate the size of their crops
according to the needs of the global market. As a result, American farmers routinely produce more wheat than the
global market can absorb and the global price of wheat is kept low. Without these subsidies, the farmers in
developing economies claim, American farmers would produce only the amount of wheat that they could sell on
the open market and the global price of wheat would rise.

Which of the following, if true, most weakens the claims of the farmers in developing countries regarding the price of wheat?

• Wheat that is not processed for consumption is often used for certain industrial applications.
• Non-governmental buyers of wheat and wheat products are able to predict how much wheat they will need several
years in advance.
• The United States government offers similar subsidies to soybean farmers, though the global price of soybeans is
significantly higher than that of wheat.
• Other countries, such as Canada and Russia, are likely to produce more wheat if the United States were to reduce
its output.
• The price of sorghum, a crop for which the United States government offers no subsidies, is lower than that of
wheat.

4. The amount of money estimated to be lost by Hollywood studios due to DVD piracy overseas increased to more
than $500 million last year. As a consequence, Hollywood studios have little prospect of making money this year
by exporting their films worldwide.

All of the following, if true, weaken the argument EXCEPT:

• $500 million represents a very small fraction of overseas profits.
• New laws and heightened international enforcement aimed at this piracy were implemented in January of this year
and have been effective.
• Even in countries where DVD piracy is widespread, theatrical first-run distribution is both very popular and profitable.
• Last year, all films that were nominated for an Academy Award were known to have been pirated on DVD.
• Domestic DVD sales were sharply higher last year; in the past, strong domestic sales have been an indicator of
higher international DVD sales in the following year.

5. Political Analyst: Because our city is a border city, illegal immigration is an important issue in the current race for
mayor. Of the two candidates for mayor, one supports a plan that would attempt to deport the city’s 9,000 illegal
immigrants and the other does not. Surveys consistently show that about 60% of the city’s residents are opposed
to the plan, while about 35% are in support of the plan. Therefore, the candidate who does not support the plan
will win the election for mayor.

All of the following statements weaken the analyst’s argument, EXCEPT:

• In the city at issue, most voters make their voting decisions based on the candidates’ positions on abortion.
• Of the 35% of residents who support the plan, some are willing to consider alternate plans for addressing illegal
immigration.
• Many of the residents who oppose the plan are not registered voters.
• The candidate who supports the plan is the incumbent mayor, and has been elected to four consecutive terms
despite taking controversial positions on many important issues.
• Just under 30% of the city’s residents are illegal immigrants who cannot vote.

6. Adam will spend $4,000 to rent a booth at the town’s annual county fair to promote his new Sandwich Shoppe. In
previous years, the average food booth at the fair served 400 customers. Thus, in order to cover his costs, Adam
has calculated that he must sell 400 sandwiches for $10 each.

Which of the following statements casts the most doubt on Adam’s chances of breaking even at the county fair?

• Adam should not limit himself to 400 sandwiches; he should be prepared to sell more.
• Adam has not factored in the costs of raw materials or labor in calculating the amount of revenue he needs to
generate to break even.
• If booths in previous years averaged 400 customers, that means some booths served more than 400 and some
served fewer than 400.
• Many people prefer other types of food to sandwiches.
• If Adam shares his booth, and the cost of the rental, with a complementary business, he will not have to sell as
many sandwiches to break even.

7. The people of Prohibitionland are considering banning the service of alcoholic beverages in restaurants to curb
unruly behavior on the part of its residents. Proprietors of restaurants in Prohibitionland are protesting the ban on
the grounds that it will reduce their revenues and profits. However, several provinces in Prohibitionland enacted
restrictions on alcoholic beverages last year, and the sales taxes paid by the restaurants in those provinces rose by
an average of 50 percent. In contrast, the sales taxes paid by restaurants located in areas of Prohibitionland that
did not have any restrictions rose by an average of 30 percent.

Which of the following, if true, supports the restaurant proprietors’ economic stance against the ban?

• In the provinces that restricted alcoholic beverages, there was a short-term negative impact on restaurant visitation
in the beginning of last year.
• The sales tax in Prohibitionland is lower on food and beverages than it is on other consumer goods, such as
clothing.
• The consumption of alcoholic beverages in Prohibitionland has been on a gradual decline the last 20 years.
• The restrictions on alcoholic beverages enacted last year allowed for the service of drinks beginning around
dinnertime each evening.
• Overall sales tax revenue did not increase at a substantially higher rate in the provinces that enacted the restrictions
on alcoholic beverages than in the rest of Prohibitionland last year.

8. Recently, some critics of the U.S. government have pointed out that this country is the only advanced industrialized
nation without a national vaccine laboratory and suggested that this lack makes the American public more vulnerable
than other developed nations to infectious diseases, such as avian flu. A government official said these critics were
disloyal and thus wrong about the public’s vulnerability. To support his claim, the official cited the generally long
life span and low infant mortality of United States citizens, relative to all United Nation member nations. Mentioning
the high quality of American hospitals, he added that all of the Europeans that he knew preferred to undergo major
medical treatments in the United States rather than in the socialized medical systems in place in their home
countries.

All of the following are weaknesses or potential weaknesses in the official’s argument EXCEPT:

• The high quality of hospitals in the United States is not a factor affecting the public’s vulnerability to infectious
disease.
• Whether or not the critics are disloyal has no bearing on whether or not they are wrong.
• The Europeans that the official cited are a demographically narrow sample, overwhelmingly composed of wealthy
males over the age of fifty.
• The average life span of United States citizens is determined not only by deaths due to infectious diseases but also
by deaths due to all other causes.
• Comparing the United States to all United Nations member nations does not address the concern that the U.S. is
behind other advanced industrialized nations in a particular way.

9. Experts estimate that insurance companies’ tardiness in paying doctors for legitimate medical claims adds
approximately 10 percent in overhead costs for physicians. Insurance companies counter that the tardiness sometimes
results from billing errors made by the doctors themselves. Since dealing with these billing errors costs the
insurance companies time and money, it is clear that insurance companies do not have a significant economic
incentive to delay claim payments to doctors.

Which of the following pieces of information, if true, weakens the conclusion above?

• Some doctors who submit accurate bills to insurance companies still receive tardy payments.
• The cost to the insurance companies to process incorrect bills from doctors’ offices is roughly equivalent to the
increased costs that physicians accrue as a result of tardy payments from insurance companies.
• A rising proportion of medical claims submitted by doctors to insurance companies are deemed illegitimate by
those insurance companies.
• The billing errors made by doctors’ offices are typically very minor, such as the submission of a claim with an
outdated patient home address.
• The overhead costs incurred by doctors as a result of delayed insurance payments result in an increase in the
premiums paid by consumers to health insurance companies that far exceeds any increase in the fees paid to
doctors by insurance companies.

10. Of the people who moved from one state to another when they retired, the proportion who retired to SunState has
decreased by 10 percent over the past five years. Since many local businesses in SunState cater to retirees, this
decline is likely to have a noticeably negative economic effect on these businesses.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument?

• SunState attracts more people who move from one state to another when they retire than does any other state.
• There are far more local businesses in SunState that cater to tourists than there are local businesses that cater to
retirees.
• The number of retirees who have moved out of SunState to accept re-employment in other states has increased
over the past five years.
• SunState has lower property taxes than any other state, making the state a magnet for retirees.
• The total number of people who retired and moved to another state for their retirement has increased significantly
over the past five years.

OA in 12 hours

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Re: GMATCLUB VERBAL ATTACK  [#permalink]

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New post 21 Sep 2012, 12:30
4
3
Sorry for the delay guys, but I will be up with a SC project soon
Here are the OEs for the weaken set


"WEAKEN" SET OFFICIAL EXPLANATIONS


WEAKEN
1.
On average, the team hit more home runs playing in front of larger crowds than
in front of smaller crowds. The argument attributes this statistic to the motivation
that comes from playing in front of larger crowds. In order to undermine this
conclusion, look for another reason to explain why more home runs were hit in
front of larger crowds.
(A) The argument makes a claim about the collective behavior of the team. This
collective claim does not preclude certain individuals from hitting fewer home
runs in larger stadiums.
(B) The claim made in the argument is based on the size of the crowd in each
stadium. For whom the fans cheered is irrelevant to the argument.
(C) Similar to answer choice A, this choice cites one specific example of
contradictory information, while the argument is based on the average behavior
of the team throughout the entire season. The does not strongly undermine that,
on average, the team was motivated by larger crowds.
(D) CORRECT. This choice explains that the larger stadiums actually have
different dimensions from the smaller stadiums. In order to accommodate a
larger number of fans, the outfield walls are closer to the batters. Thus, it is very
possible that the greater number of home runs is due to the fact that the ball
does not have to travel as far in larger stadiums.
(E) The announcer’s opinion is not relevant to the argument, and, even if it were,
this choice would strengthen the argument.
2.
The conclusion is that "if major industries increase their capital reserves, the
employment rate will not decline in the future." Why? Because major industry did
not have capital reserves. The author assumes that having capital reserves is
sufficient to prevent a decline in the employment rate. We are asked to cast
doubt (i.e., weaken) the author's claim.

(A) Whether the drop in employment was foreseen does not relate to the core of
the argument, which is that capital reserves will prevent another decline in the
employment rate.

(B) The fact that some major industries had appreciable capital reserves does
not contradict the claim that an increase in these reserves would prevent a future
drop in employment rates.

(C) CORRECT. The author neglects to take into account the fact that other
factors, such as an increase in labor costs, could adversely affect the
employment rate. For example, if the cost of labor becomes prohibitively
expensive, even with increased reserves, the employment rate could decline.

(D) Legislation mandating a certain level of reserves does not contradict the
claim that increased reserves would prevent a drop in employment rates.

(E) The fact that the employment rate was more severe this year than last does
not contradict the claim that an increase in reserves would prevent a drop in the
employment rate.
3.
Farmers in developing countries claim that the global price of wheat is low
because American farmers produce too much of the grain. They also claim that
American farmers produce too much wheat because they have no incentive to
manage their crops, since the U.S. government will buy whatever wheat
American farmers cannot sell on the open market. We are asked to find a choice that
weakens the claims of the farmers in developing countries that removing the
American subsidy would cause the price of wheat to rise.
(A) That there are uses for wheat that is not eaten is irrelevant here. This does
not address any aspect of the farmers' claims.
(B) The fact that buyers of wheat can predict their needs in advance is irrelevant
here, because the text indicates that American farmers do not pay attention to
actual demand for wheat.
(C) In this argument, the global market for soybeans is irrelevant to the global
market for wheat, which is a different commodity with different demand, supply,
and pricing structures.
(D) CORRECT. The farmers assume that the sole cause of the wheat surplus is
the United States. This answer choice suggests that other countries would
modify their output to counterbalance any reduction on the part of the United
States, keeping prices constant instead of allowing them to rise.
(E) The price of another crop is largely irrelevant. Moreover, the fact that the
price of sorghum, a non-subsidized crop, is lower tends to support, rather than
weaken, the claims of the farmers.
4.
This argument concludes that “Hollywood studios have little chance of making
money this year by exporting their films worldwide,” based on the premise that
profits from piracy overseas rose sharply last year. The argument assumes that
no other relevant conditions have changed for the better since then. The question
asks for a choice that does not weaken the argument, which means that the
correct answer will either strengthen it or is irrelevant.
(A) This choice weakens the argument. It attacks the necessary assumption that
$500 million is a large enough amount to destroy Hollywood profits.
(B) This choice weakens the argument. It attacks the necessary assumption that
there would not be a heightened and effective law enforcement campaign against
piracy.
(C) This choice weakens the argument. It attacks the assumption that there are
no other ways for Hollywood studios to profit from export of its films than DVDs.
(D) CORRECT. This choice is irrelevant. The conclusion (and premise) concern
money. That all of the Academy Award-nominated films were pirated last year
does not increase or diminish the probability of Hollywood studios making money
this year. Thus, this does not weaken the argument.
(E) This choice makes the conclusion less likely by providing a premise that
suggests that this year’s profits internationally will rise.
5.
The analyst argues that the mayoral candidate who opposes the deportation plan
will win the governor’s race because 60% of city residents also oppose the plan.
The analyst assumes that a majority of residents will vote for this candidate
based on his position on illegal immigration. Any statement that calls this
assumption into question will weaken the argument. We are looking for the one
statement that does NOT call this assumption into question.
(A) This statement calls into question the assumption that voters will cast their
ballots based on the illegal immigration issue. Therefore, this statement
weakens the analyst's argument.
(B) CORRECT. This does not weaken the argument. In fact, if some of those
who support the plan are willing to reconsider, they may ultimately oppose the
original plan and decide to vote for the candidate who is also in opposition. If
anything, this would help justify the analyst's claim that the candidate who
opposes the plan will win the election.
(C) This statement calls into question the assumption that a majority of residents
will vote for the candidate who opposes the plan. If many of these residents are
not registered voters, they will not be able to vote, regardless of their position on
the immigration issue. This weakens the argument.
(D) This calls into question the assumption that the residents will vote based on
the illegal immigration issue. This statement shows that voters have a history of
voting for the incumbent despite his controversial position on important issues. It
is possible that the voters will again vote for the incumbent, even if he has taken
an unpopular position on the illegal immigration issue. This weakens the
argument.
(E) If just under 30% of the residents are illegal immigrants, it is likely that many
of the 60% in opposition to the plan are actually illegal immigrants themselves. If
these people can’t vote, it is less likely that the candidate who opposes the plan
will win.
6.
Adam concludes that to cover the $4,000 cost of a booth at the fair, he will need
to sell 400 sandwiches at $10 each. He relies on information about the number of
customers served by the average booth in previous years. The question asks
what most weakens Adam’s conclusion. The correct answer will either show that
Adam has overlooked other important costs, or that his logic is fundamentally flawed.
There could be more than one choice that seems to suggest that Adam
might not break even; the correct answer will be the one that eliminates any
possibility that he will break even.
(A) Though this is certainly true in a practical sense, it does not show that Adam's
plan will not work and that he will not stay within his budget. In fact, if he could
sell more than 400 sandwiches, it is likely that this would help him break even.
(B) CORRECT. Each sandwich costs some amount of money to make and sell,
so even if Adam sells the 400 sandwiches as planned, his net income will
certainly be less than $4,000. Based on this statement, Adam definitely will not
break even.
(C) Though it is true that an average number of customers means some booths
served more and some served fewer, this statement does not tell us that Adam
will have fewer than 400 or that his plan cannot work. Consider also that each
customer might buy more than one sandwich, so Adam could have fewer
customers but still sell enough sandwiches to cover his costs.
(D) Although some people will buy other types of food at the fair, this statement
fails to conclusively weaken Adam’s logic. Adam relied on information about the
average number of customers for food booths in previous years, but those
booths may have sold sandwiches or other foods – we simply don’t have enough
information to judge whether this statement strengthens or weakens Adam’s
conclusion.
(E) Sharing the booth would actually make it more likely that Adam would break
even. If he shares the cost of the booth rental, then he is more likely to sell
enough sandwiches to cover his costs.
7.
The argument concerns the economic impact on restaurants in Prohibitionland if
the service of alcoholic beverages is banned. It presents evidence that, despite
restrictions on the service of alcohol in certain areas of Prohibitionland, sales
taxes in restaurants in those areas rose at a higher rate than for those in other
parts of Prohibitionland, suggesting that the ban would not have any adverse
economic impact. We are asked to support the restaurant proprietors' claim , so
the correct answer choice will call the relevance of the seemingly contradictory
evidence into question.
(A). This answer choice may seem to strengthen the argument that banning the
service of alcoholic beverages would have an adverse impact on restaurants.
However, as the evidence involves data for the entire year, citing a short-term
negative impact on restaurant visitation at the beginning of the year does not
measurably strengthen the argument.
(B) The relative tax rate on food and beverages as compared to other consumer
good is irrelevant here.
(C) A gradual decline in alcohol consumption over the past 20 years would
suggest that over time, any ban on alcohol would have an increasingly small
impact on restaurant visitation, weakening the proprietors’ argument.
(D) CORRECT. This statement calls the evidence into question by indicating that
any measured increase in sales taxes and, presumably, revenues for restaurants
that have been operating under the restrictions last year enacted is irrelevant, as
the restrictions could be argued to be completely different than the total ban that
is being proposed. This answer choice substantially strengthens the proprietors’
argument by threatening to make the cited evidence irrelevant.
(E) The fact that overall sales tax revenue did not increase at a higher rate in the
provinces that enacted the restrictions on alcoholic beverages weakens the
proprietors’ argument, as it makes the cited evidence more compelling by ruling
out the possibility of different growth rates in the different areas.
8.
The official's conclusion is that people who claim that the U.S. is more vulnerable
than other nations because of the country's lack of a national vaccine laboratory
are disloyal and incorrect. His basis for that conclusion is that the U.S. has
generally long life span and low infant mortality relative to all UN countries.
Moreover, he cites the high quality of American hospitals, and he adds that many
people he knows from around the world come to the U.S. for medical care. We
are asked to find the choice that does NOT point out a weakness or potential
weakness in the official's argument.
(A) CORRECT. This choice states that the high quality of hospitals is not a factor
affecting the public's vulnerability to infectious disease. However, the quality of
hospitals very arguably does affect how vulnerable the public is to such disease.
(B) This choice highlights the official's logical jump from "disloyal" to "wrong" in
the phrase "these critics are disloyal and thus wrong about the public's
vulnerability." There is no necessary connection between disloyalty and
wrongness.
(C) If the Europeans that the official cited overwhelmingly consist of wealthy men
over the age of fifty, then the official relied on an unrepresentative sample to
justify his claim. What is true of wealthy older European men is not necessarily
true of Europeans or non-Americans generally.
(D) If the average life span of Americans is determined by causes other than
infectious disease, then the official is not limiting his evidence to cases relating to
vaccines. Other causes of death are not relevant to the critics' argument.
(E) The ranking of the United States relative to all UN countries is misleading,
since it does not compare the U.S. to other "advanced industrialized" or
"developed" nations, as the critics' claim does.
9.
The conclusion of the argument is that insurance companies do not have a
significant economic incentive to delay claim payments to doctors. To weaken
this conclusion, an answer choice must provide some significant economic
incentive for insurance companies to be tardy in paying doctors for legitimate
medical claims.
(A) While the fact that some doctors who submit accurate bills to insurance
companies still receive tardy payments seems to indicate that there must be
something other than errors causing delayed payments, it fails to prove that the
insurance company has an economic incentive to deliberately delay claim
payments to doctors. For example, this fact could simply indicate that the
insurance companies are inefficient at handling all of their paperwork.
(B) This choice compares costs insurance companies must absorb due to
incorrect bills to costs physicians must absorb due to tardy payments. However,
this information is irrelevant to establishing an economic incentive for insurance
companies to delay claim payments to doctors.
(C) The argument is focused on the payment of legitimate claims; the rising
proportion of illegitimate claims does not establish a clear economic incentive for
insurance companies to delay payments of legitimate claims.
(D) The types of billing errors made by doctors' offices does not establish any
economic motive for insurance companies to make a practice of delaying
payments to doctors.
(E) CORRECT. This choice articulates a logical chain that establishes a clear
economic motive for insurance companies to be tardy in paying doctors for
legitimate medical claims. If insurance companies delay payments to doctors,
this results in a 10 percent increase in overhead costs for physicians. These
costs ultimately result in higher fees that doctors charge to insurance companies.
Insurance companies, in turn, raise the premiums they charge consumers for
health coverage. This choice states that the insurance companies increase their
fees to consumers far more than the doctors increase their fees to insurance
companies, enabling the insurance companies to pocket the difference; therein
lies the economic motive for insurance companies to be tardy in paying doctors
for legitimate medical claims. 10.
This argument concludes that a decline in the percentage of retirees who
relocate to SunState will have a negative impact on businesses there that cater
to retirees. However, a decline in this percentage would only have a negative
impact on businesses if it indicated a decrease in the actual number of retirees. If
the actual number of retirees is steady or increasing, then a decrease in the
percentage wouldn't matter. As we are looking for a statement that weakens the
argument, we should look for an answer choice that somehow mitigates the
effect of this percentage decrease.
(A) The fact that SunState attracts more retirees than any other state does not
address the impact of the declining proportion of retirees moving to SunState.
(B) The existence of other businesses in SunState that do not cater to retirees is
not relevant.
(C) Any increase in departure of retirees from SunState to accept re-employment
would further damage businesses that serve retirees. However, the argument
explicitly discusses the impact of the declining percentage of retirees relocating
to SunState, and no other factors, making this answer choice irrelevant. In any
case, this answer choice suggests that such businesses will indeed lose
business, which would strengthen the conclusion, not weaken it.
(D) Low property taxes provide one reason why SunState is an appealing
destination for retirees, but this is not relevant in determining the economic
impact of the smaller proportion of retirees moving to SunState overall.
(E) CORRECT. If the total number of retirees that relocated to other states
increased significantly, a 10 percent reduction in the proportion of retirees that
moved to SunState may not result in a reduction in the actual number of people
who moved to SunState. This choice weakens the contention that businesses
that cater to retirees in SunState will suffer from a drop-off resulting from the
percentage decrease.
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Re: WEEK 1: CRITICAL REASONING STRENGTHEN/WEAKEN Questions  [#permalink]

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New post 22 Sep 2012, 06:55
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souvik101990 wrote:
[textarea]

WEEK 1: Strengthen/Weaken/Evaluate the Argument


STRATEGY : Strengthen Question




In the Strengthen Set I got 4 Wrongs - #1,3,7 and 8 out of 9, I had seen 1 question earlier so not counting it.

Took 21 Minutes to did these 9 questions.


In # 1 and # 7 I was totally bowled over, could not get understand the argument properly.

I feel #3 was a sitter, I could not have missed that.

Souvik, any suggestions on how to improve on Strengthen questions.
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Re: WEEK 1: CRITICAL REASONING STRENGTHEN/WEAKEN Questions  [#permalink]

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New post 22 Sep 2012, 13:35
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methevoid wrote:
souvik101990 wrote:
[textarea]

WEEK 1: Strengthen/Weaken/Evaluate the Argument


STRATEGY : Strengthen Question




In the Strengthen Set I got 4 Wrongs - #1,3,7 and 8 out of 9, I had seen 1 question earlier so not counting it.

Took 21 Minutes to did these 9 questions.


In # 1 and # 7 I was totally bowled over, could not get understand the argument properly.

I feel #3 was a sitter, I could not have missed that.

Souvik, any suggestions on how to improve on Strengthen questions.


2 Basic approaches for a CR question



Inference/Bold Face question



In these type of question you should trust your core logic skills. Premises should be your best friend, and you should look out for excruciating details to deconstruct the argument. The quantitative part of your brain needs to be on high alert in this type of questions.

For example, what do you really look for an answer to an inference question?

Statements that are "Must be true" types, OR
Statements that can be logically proven to be true.

In these questions you need to focus on the flow of the argument, define roles for the premises and compare the answer choice. For these type of questions, paraphrasing is NOT a good idea.

Strengthen/weaken type of questions



These are just the opposite. In these types of questions, you need to look at the bigger picture. You can let your logic rest somewhere else, and let your common sense on the driver's seat. Paraphrasing is a highly advised strategy here.
Well look at it this way: we all did strengthening/weakening type of questions as a kid unknowingly.
See whether you are familiar with this situation.

You break the window glass of your neighbor's house while playing ball. He comes to your place and gives your dad a piece of his mind. Then you tell them that it wasn't you, and probably the other kids of the next block broke the glass.

See you weaken your neighbor's conclusion without even touching powerscore or manhattan.
That is why paraphrasing becomes easier, because you are already familiar with it.

My advice is to paraphrase all strenghten weaken questions without looking at the answer choice. Even if the option did not align with the OA, don't panic. It will, at least make you think in the right direction and let your brain know how to function on those questions when you take the gmat.

Hope this helps.

Souvik
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Re: GMATCLUB VERBAL ATTACK  [#permalink]

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New post 27 Sep 2012, 12:48
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"Assumption" Strategies



Which of the following is an assumption must for the argument to hold true?



Answer is a presupposition- a statement that is a must if the argument is true. Without that assumption, argument falls apart- it
is an unstated premise. You ABSOLUTELY NEED an assumption. If you don’t have an assumption, then the argument dies.

• Stimulus will always be an argument- since you can only strengthen a conclusion, not a fact set. Identify, isolate and assess
the premises and conclusion
• Focus on conclusion
• Information in stimulus is suspect. Reasoning errors are present which can be corrected by answer choice.
• Strong prephrases possible
• Answer choices can bring new information which is not present in stimulus.
Assumptions are NECESSARYfor the argument – author relies upon it, and is fully committed to it.
Assumptions are NEVERstated in the argument – if it is directly mentioned, it is not an assumption.
Assumption is a minimalist answer- if it has any information author is not committed to or sure of it will not be correct.
How Assumption Questions are different from Must be true questions? – Assumption is something that must be true BEFORE
the argument.


Incorrect Answer Choices:



1. No tie to the conclusion- uses words from conclusion and is broadly related, but is not an assumption necessary for the
argument. A sub set is ‘breaks up a category’- assumption talks of boys and girls vs. teachers, and answer choice talks of
boys vs. girls
Opposite answer- were this to be assumed, argument will be weakened! It is important for this not to be true for conclusion
to be correct!
Switching terms- shell game

2. Addresses premises only
Follows on from the conclusion, instead of conclusion following on from it.
Too broad – e.g. instead of cyclists, comment about athletes. This doesn’t HAVE to be true! An assumption has to be 100 %
true
Type of Assumptions: Supporter/Defender

3. Supporter: Traditional linking role- links two part of premises, or premise to conclusion. Conclusion in such an argument
will have some new element which is not present in premises. In an assumption question, always be on lookout for a gap
in the argument premise and conclusion- a new element, and then the answer choice that brings that new element in
picture would be a straight win.

4. Defender: protect the argument by eliminating ideas that could weaken the argument. In order to believe that his
argument is correct and fool-proof, the author is assuming that all possible objections have been considered and rejected.
This can be an infinite range of assumptions.
If confused between some answer choices, use ASSUMPTION NEGATION TECHNIQUE

5. Converts an assumption question to a weaken question- negate both the assumption answer choices, the one whose negation causes
the entire argument to fall is the correct answer choice. This will happen because of necessary, indispensable nature of assumption.


Negation:

Is logical negation, not polar opposite. ‘I went to beach every day’ negated is ‘I didn’t go to beach every day’, not ‘I didn’t go to
beach any day’ (polar opposite)

Logical opposite of sweet is not sweet (not sour). Logical opposite divides the subject under consideration into two sets which
include all possible states.

Logical opposite of all – not all (not none); logical opposite of none is some. If all is 100, not all is 0-99. None is 0, and some is 1-100

Logical opposite of none- at least one.

You can use not necessarily for negating in most cases.


Some patterns observed in GMAT:

• At least one or at least some: When an assumption answer choice starts with these, it is normally correct. Negate and test –
none.
Constructions which claim to be most important/primary consideration/ main factor are normally wrong.
Look out for constructions with not/negative etc. they might be correct.

Assumptions and Causality



• Author assumes no other cause exists
• Author assumes cause always leads to effect
• Author assumes that when cause doesn’t occur effect doesn’t occur
• Eliminates the possibility that stated relationship is reverse
• Eliminates possible problems with data


In a cause- effect relationship argument, choose an assumption which supports this causal relationship in one of the above
5 ways. Answer choices discussing matters before or after the causal relationships are not correct.

In a fill in the bank question stem beginning with a premise indicator like ‘because_______ or as a result of _____’ you have to
provide an assumption. Beginning with conclusion indicator- ‘therefore ______’ you have to provide a must be true/main point
answer.

GMATPREP EXAMPLES



Q. If a person chooses to walk rather than drive, there is one less vehicle emitting pollution into the air than there would be
otherwise. Therefore if people would walk whenever it is feasible for them to do so, the pollution will be greatly reduced. Which
of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?

A) Cutting down on pollution can be achieved in a variety of ways.
B) Taking public transportation rather than driving is not always feasible
C) Walking is the only feasible alternative to driving that results in reduction in pollution
D) There are people who never drive but who often walk
E) People sometimes drive when it is feasible to walk instead
Remember that an assumption is a statement that you absolutely need to be true.
C says there is no other way to reduce pollution. Argument doesn’t assume that. It is not a necessary statement, the
passage just says that walking will reduce pollution, not that only walking will reduce pollution.
E says that people sometimes currently drive when it is feasible to walk. only if this is true can this be stopped, and thus
pollution will be reduced.
Notice this is a pretty bland statement – you would think you already knew this! But actually you also assumed it
unconsciously. Thus assumptions for the most part would be something even you would have taken for granted.
Assumption statements will be weaker/ more moderate statements. in Strengthen/ Weaken more extreme statements are
good.
Using assumption negation technique: c reversed says that there are other ways, that doesn’t affect the argument. E
negated says that there is nobody who drives when it is feasible to walk i.e. everybody who can walk is already walking, then
the argument fails – the plan will have no effect.


Q. A famous singer recently won a lawsuit against an advertising firm for using another singer in a commercial to evoke the
famous singer’s well-known rendition of a certain song. As a result of the lawsuit, advertising firms will stop using imitators
in commercials. Therefore, advertising costs will rise, since famous singers’ services cost more than those of their imitators.
The conclusion above is based on which of the following assumptions?

(A) Most people are unable to distinguish a famous singer’s rendition of a song from a good imitator’s rendition of the same
song.
(B) Commercials using famous singers are usually more effective than commercials using imitators of famous singers.
(C) The original versions of some well-known songs are unavailable for use in commercials.
(D) Advertising firms will continue to use imitators to mimic the physical mannerisms of famous singers.
(E) The advertising industry will use well-known renditions of songs in commercials.
Reversing B says that renditions with commercial singers are no more effective. This has no effect on the costs of the
advertising which the argument is concerned with. This is out of scope. An assumption has to be within the scope of the
argument.
C reversed says that all original versions are available – but these are done by famous singers. So they will have to be paid.
E reversed says that ads will not use renditions of famous songs. If songs themselves are not used, they cannot lead to
increased advertising costs.
Answer: E


"ASSUMPTION" SET




1. To decrease the number of crimes in city Y, the city’s Police Commissioner proposed taking some police officers
from low-crime districts of the city and moving them to high-crime districts of the city. His proposal is based on city
Y crime data that show that the number of crimes in any district of the city decreases when additional police
officers are moved into that district. The Police Commissioner’s proposal depends on which of the following
assumptions?

• City X experienced a drastic reduction in crime after implementing a proposal similar to that proposed by the Police
Commissioner of city Y.
• The severity of crimes committed in any district of the city decreases when additional police officers are moved
into that district.
• The number of crimes committed in all high-crime districts of city Y is more than triple the number of crimes
committed in all low-crime districts of city Y.
• There are more low-crime districts than high-crime districts in city Y.
• Districts of the city from which police officers are removed do not experience significant crime increases shortly
after the removal of those officers.

2. Although there has been great scientific debate for decades over global warming, most scientists now agree that
human activity is causing the Earth’s temperature to rise. Though predictions vary, many global warming experts
believe that average global temperatures will rise between three and eight degrees Fahrenheit during the next
century. Such an increase would cause an alarming rise in sea levels, displacing millions of people by destroying
major population centers along the world’s coastlines. Which of the following is an assumption in support of the
argument’s conclusion?

• New technological developments in the next century will not divert rising seas from the world’s coastal cities.
• Individuals will not become more aware of the steps they can take to reduce the emission of greenhouse gases.
• Rising sea levels similarly affect all coastal population centers.
• Some global warming experts predict a greater than eight degree Fahrenheit increase in global temperatures
during the next century.
• Human activity is the sole cause of increasing global temperatures.

3. “The new HitItFar driver is the only golf club that uses space-age Titanium-Kryptonium alloy to strengthen its head.
This driver is SO good, the last 12 winners of the major tour championships have all recently switched to it! Isn’t
it time for you to add power to your swing and distance to your drives? Trade in your old driver today — and
HitItFar tomorrow!” All of the following claims are either implied or made explicitly in the above advertisement
EXCEPT:

• Switching to the HitItFar driver will improve your play.
• The HitItFar driver helped the last 12 major championship winners achieve their victory.
• Major championship winners are experts and know what constitutes a great golf club.
• Your existing driver is inferior to the HitItFar driver.
• Only HitItFar golf clubs have Titanium-Kryptonium alloy in the head of their drivers.

4. Researchers studying the spread of the Black Plague in sixteenth-century England claim that certain people survived
the epidemic because they carried a genetic mutation, known as Delta-32, that is known to prevent the bacteria
that causes the Plague from overtaking the immune system. To support this hypothesis, the researchers tested the
direct descendants of the residents of an English town where an unusually large proportion of people survived the
Plague. More than half of these descendants tested positive for the mutation Delta-32, a figure nearly three times
higher than that found in other locations. The researchers’ hypothesis is based on which of the following assumptions?

• Delta-32 does not prevent a carrier from contracting any disease other than the Plague.
• The Plague is not similar to other diseases caused by bacteria.
• Delta-32 did not exist in its current form until the sixteenth century.
• No one who tested positive for Delta-32 has ever contracted a disease caused by bacteria.
• The Plague does not cause genetic mutations such as Delta-32.

5. The popular notion that a tree’s age can be determined by counting the number of internal rings in its trunk is
generally true. However, to help regulate the internal temperature of the tree, the outermost layers of wood of the
Brazilian ash often peel away when the temperature exceeds 95 degrees Fahrenheit, leaving the tree with fewer
rings than it would otherwise have. So only if the temperature in the Brazilian ash’s environment never exceeds 95
degrees Fahrenheit will its rings be a reliable measure of the tree’s age. Which of the following is an assumption
on which the argument above depends?
• The growth of new rings in a tree is not a function of levels of precipitation.
• Only the Brazilian ash loses rings because of excessive heat.
• Only one day of temperatures above 95 degrees Fahrenheit is needed to cause the Brazilian ash to lose a ring.
• The internal rings of all trees are of uniform thickness.
• The number of rings that will be lost when the temperature exceeds 95 degrees Fahrenheit is not predictable.

6. The Department of Homeland Security has proposed new federal requirements for driver’s licenses that would
allow them to be used as part of a national identification system. Using licenses for purposes not directly related
to operating a motor vehicle is un-American because it would require U.S. citizens to carry the equivalent of
“papers.” Such a requirement would allow the government to restrict their movements and activities in the manner
of totalitarian regimes. In time, this could make other limits on freedom acceptable. The author assumes which of
the following?

• The next presidential election will be dishonest, as has happened in eastern European countries.
• The government will soon start curtailing the activities of those it considers “dissidents.”
• Blanket restrictions on law-abiding individuals are contrary to the traditions of American culture and law.
• The majority of Americans are not willing to give up their right to travel and move about without identification.
• Americans should resist all government regulation of their lives.12

7. Since the new publisher took control, a news magazine’s covers have featured only models and movie stars.
Previously, the covers had displayed only politicians, soldiers, and business leaders. A leading gossip columnist
claimed that the changes made the magazine relevant again. However, many newspaper editorials disagreed and
suggested that the new publisher is more interested in boosting sales than in reporting important news events.
Which of the following is an assumption necessary for the argument made by the gossip columnist’s opponents?

• The charitable activities of models and movie stars often focus public attention on pressing problems.
• Final authority for choosing the cover subject of the magazine lies with the publisher.
• A magazine can boost sales while highlighting the coverage of important world leaders.
• Some of the movie stars featured are now running for political office.
• Magazine issues with models or movie stars on the covers are purchased at a rate more than three times greater
than is the case with issues featuring politicians on the covers.

8. In response to the increasing cost of producing energy through traditional means, such as combustion, many utility
companies have begun investing in renewable energy sources, chiefly wind and solar power, hoping someday to
rely on them completely and thus lower energy costs. The utility companies claim that although these sources
require significant initial capital investment, they will provide stable energy supplies at low cost. As a result, these
sources will be less risky for the utilities than nonrenewable sources, such as gas, oil, and coal, whose prices can
fluctuate dramatically according to availability. The claim of the utility companies presupposes which of the following?

• The public will embrace the development of wind and solar power.
• No new deposits of gas, oil, and coal will be discovered in the near future.
• Weather patterns are consistent and predictable.
• The necessary technology for conversion to wind and solar power is not more expensive than the technology
needed to create energy through combustion.
• Obtaining energy from nonrenewable sources, such as gas, oil and coal, cannot be made less risky.

9. Surveys consistently show that the best-selling ice cream flavor is vanilla, although those who prefer chocolate
rarely order vanilla. Vanilla-flavored candy, then, probably sells better than chocolate-flavored candy. Which of
the following is an assumption upon which the author of the argument relies?

• Because someone prefers vanilla ice cream does not mean he prefers vanilla-flavored candy.
• Children who prefer vanilla ice cream also tend to like chocolate candy.
• Those who prefer neither vanilla nor chocolate ice cream also prefer other flavors of candy.
• Someone who prefers vanilla ice cream may still order chocolate on occasion.
• Preferences for certain ice cream flavors are similar to preferences for candy flavors.

10. The media claim that the economy is entering a phase of growth and prosperity. They point to lower unemployment
rates and increased productivity. This analysis is false, though. The number of people filing for bankruptcy has
increased every month for the last six months, and bankruptcy lawyers report that they are busier than they have
been in years. Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?

• Unemployment rates are not useful indicators of growth and prosperity.
• Economic growth cannot be measured in terms of productivity.
• Legislation has not been recently passed to make legal bankruptcy easier to obtain.
• There has not been an increase in the number of bankruptcy lawyers..
• The media often misrepresent the current state of economic affairs.

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New post 03 Oct 2012, 20:32
6
1

"ASSUMPTION" Set OE



1. The Police Commissioner's proposal hopes to decrease the number of crimes in
city Y by shifting police officers from low-crime to high-crime districts. His
proposal is based on data that demonstrate that crime decreases when
additional police officers are moved into a district. However, the data do not
mention anything about the effect on the districts from which the police officers
were removed. The commissioner's plan is based on the assumption that the
movement of police officers will not have any adverse effects on the low-crime
districts.
(A) While it is encouraging that a similar plan worked successfully in City X, this
fact is certainly not essential for the success of the plan in City Y. The cities may
be so different as to make the comparison meaningless.
(B) The police commissioner's proposal is focused solely on decreasing the
number of crimes in city Y. The severity of the crimes has no bearing on whether
the commissioner's proposal will succeed or not.
(C) The actual numerical distinction between high and low-crime areas of the city
is immaterial to the commissioner's proposal. For instance, if the number of
crimes committed in all high crime districts was only double (instead of more than
triple) the number of crimes committed in low crime districts, the proposal could
still be valid.
(D) It would be practically beneficial to the commissioner's plan if there were
more low crime than high crime districts in city Y. This would enable the
movement of police officers to every high crime district. However, this is not
necessary to achieve the commissioner's goal of decreasing the total number of
crimes in city Y. Even if there were more high-crime districts than low-crime
districts in city Y, police officers could still be shifted to some (though not all)
high-crime districts, and thereby possibly reduce the total number of crimes in
city Y.
(E) CORRECT. The police commissioner's proposal would not make sense if
districts of the city from which police officers are removed experience significant
crime increases shortly after the removal of those officers. This would at least
partially, if not fully, negate the reduction in the number of crimes in the highcrime districts.
This choice establishes that, in fact, the low-crime districts do
NOT suffer from significant crime increases after the removal of some officers--
an essential assumption upon which the commissioner's proposal depends.

2. The argument concludes that rising sea levels caused by global warming will
destroy major coastal population centers and displace millions of people. Any
assumption in support of this conclusion would have to corroborate that these
events will definitively take place.
(A) CORRECT. If new technological developments in the next century allow
people to divert rising seas from the world’s cities (i.e., population centers), cities
will not be destroyed and millions of people will not be displaced. Thus, a
necessary assumption is that these technologies will not be developed.
(B) A simple awareness of the steps to reduce emissions in no way undermines
the argument’s conclusion, as this answer choice does not describe any action
being taken by individuals. Additionally, greenhouse gases are never mentioned
as the primary by-product of human activity that causes global warming, and are
therefore not sufficient to address the argument.
(C) The argument never suggests that all coastal population centers are similarly
affected; this choice is too extreme and overreaching for the argument’s
conclusion.
(D) This might be true, but it is not an assumption on which the conclusion rests.
Instead, this answer choice is simply an inference that might be drawn from the
premises.
(E) The idea that human activity is the sole cause of global warming is neither
suggested nor assumed by the argument. In addition, the wording "sole cause" is
too extreme.

3. As an advertisement, this passage attempts to entice the reader into purchasing
a new HitItFar driver by touting its benefits, both implied or explicit. The key to
answering this question is to be able to analyze each claim to determine whether
it is implied, explicitly stated, or neither.
(A) By asking the reader rhetorically "isn't it time you added power ... and
distance ... [by switching to the HitItFar driver]?", the advertisement implies that
the use of the club will add "power ... and distance" and, hence, will improve
one's play.
(B) CORRECT. The advertisement states that the 12 major championships
winner have recently switched to the new driver. There is nothing in the passage
to imply that any of them were using the driver at the time of their victories;
hence, this claim is neither implied, nor made explicitly, in the passage. (C) It is a
reasonable assumption that professional golfers, particularly those
skilled enough to win a major championship, are experts and know what
constitutes a great club. The advertisement makes this implication and reinforces
it by citing the recent decision of these golfers to switch to the HitItFar driver; this
provides an implicit expert endorsement for the HitItFar driver.
(D) The point of the advertisement is to prompt the reader into purchasing a new
driver to replace his or her old driver in order to "add power and distance"; this
implies that the new driver is superior to the reader's existing driver.
(E) This claim is explicitly stated in the first sentence of the passage.

4. The researchers claim that Delta-32 prevents its carriers from contracting the
Plague. They support this claim by noting that a strikingly large percentage of
descendants of Plague survivors carry the mutation. We are asked to find an
assumption underlying the claim.
(A) The argument is specific to the relationship between Delta-32 and resistance
to the Plague. Other diseases are irrelevant.
(B) Again, the argument is specific to the relationship between Delta-32 and
resistance to the Plague. Other diseases are irrelevant.
(C) Delta-32 may have existed in its current form before the sixteenth century
and the merit of the argument would not change.
(D) The argument does not claim that Delta-32 prevents all bacteria-caused
disease.
(E) CORRECT. The researchers claim that Delta-32 prevented its carriers from
contracting the Plague on the basis of its presence in descendants of Plague
survivors. But it is theoretically possible that these descendants carry the
mutation Delta-32 because the Plague mutated the genes of their ancestors. In
order to claim that the mutation prevented the Plague, we must assume that the
Plague did not cause the mutation Delta-32.

5. The author concludes that one will only be able to determine the age of a
Brazilian ash by counting its rings if the temperature in the tree's environment
never exceeds 95 degrees Fahrenheit. The author bases this conclusion on the
fact that the tree loses rings when the temperature exceeds that level. However,
if the number of rings lost by a Brazilian ash at high temperatures can be
predicted, it may be possible to determine the age of a tree even if the
temperature exceeds 95 degrees. (A) The argument says nothing about precipitation.
This answer choice is out of scope since it would require a number of other assumptions
to make it relevant to the argument's conclusion.
(B) Whether other trees share this feature is irrelevant; the argument focuses
only on the Brazilian ash.
(C) The number of days of excessive heat needed to cause the tree to lose rings
is irrelevant.
(D) The thickness of the rings is irrelevant.
(E) CORRECT. The conclusion is that the rings will be a reliable measure only if
the temperature never exceeds 95 degrees. This is true only if there is no way to
predict how many rings would be lost when the temperature does exceed 95
degrees. (If it were possible to predict this, one might be able to assess the age
of a tree using its rings even if the temperature had exceeded 95 degrees.)

6. The conclusion of this argument is that the national identification system (“using
licenses for purposes not directly related to operating a motor vehicle”) is unAmerican.
The basis for this claim is that such a system would allow the
government to restrict the liberty of its people. The necessary assumption is one
that connects restrictions on liberties to the concept of “un-American” policies.
(A) The author never mentions future presidential elections, or the role of the
president in such a national identification system. Therefore, the conclusion that
the national identification system is un-American does not depend on this
assumption.
(B) Whether the government will soon, or will ever, start curtailing the activities of
dissidents is irrelevant to this argument: that the national identification system is
un-American simply because it restricts the liberties of U.S. citizens. Even if the
government does not abuse the power the national identification system
provides, the system could still be considered un-American.
(C) CORRECT. This choice connects the concept of "un-American" policies to
restrictions on liberties, essentially defining blanket restrictions on citizens as unAmerican.
(D) Whether Americans are willing to give up their right to travel freely is
irrelevant to this argument: that the national identification system is un-American
simply because it restricts the liberties of U.S. citizens. Even if Americans were willing to
give up their right to move about without identification, the system could
still be considered un-American.
(E) While the author may be inclined to agree that Americans should resist the
government regulation of their lives that the national identification system
represents, this argument does not depend on such an assumption. In fact, the
author makes a distinction between the national identification system and
“licenses for purposes…directly related to operating a motor vehicle,” so it is
possible that the author considers some government regulation reasonable.

7. The argument presents the facts of an apparent change in a magazine's cover
features since the new publisher took control. While a gossip columnist hailed the
change, newspaper editorials disagreed and concluded that the publisher
favored profit over reporting. The editorials are the opponents of the gossip
columnist; since their conclusion is about the publisher’s desires, there must be
an assumption connecting the publisher to the covers.
(A) This choice is irrelevant, as it is not connected to the conclusion. The
activities of celebrities have nothing to do with the publisher’s interests.
(B) CORRECT. Since the conclusion concerns the publisher’s desires based on
the content of the magazine covers, the editorials have to assume that the
publisher decides who is to be a cover subject. If not, there is no connection
between the covers and the publisher’s interests.
(C) This choice is the opposite of a necessary assumption. For the editorials to
conclude that the publisher prefers profits to reporting, they have to assume that
the two are mutually exclusive.
(D) “Some” means “at least one,” so this is not a powerful statement in any
direction. Furthermore, even if several such stars were running for political office,
it is not at all necessary to assume that to conclude that the publisher was more
interested in profits.
(E) This choice is not correct. While it is true that the editorials must assume
model and movie star covers are likely to sell more copies, it does not have to be
assumed that such covers will result in the sale of triple the number of copies, or
any other specific number.

8. The conclusion of the argument is that renewable sources of energy, chiefly solar
and wind, will be less risky for certain utilities than nonrenewable sources, such
as oil and gas. The basis for this claim is that the renewable sources will provide
stable, low-cost supplies of energy, whereas the prices for nonrenewable sources
will fluctuate according to availability. We are asked to find an
assumption underlying this argument. In order for this argument to be valid, it
must in fact be true that these renewable sources of energy will provide stable,
low-cost supplies.
(A) The utility companies' claim has to do with the supply risk of the new energy
sources, not with how these sources are received by the public.
(B) If no new supplies of traditional energy sources are found, then it is true that
perhaps these nonrenewable supplies will continue to fluctuate in price in a risky
manner. However, the argument does not depend upon any assumption about
the future discovery of oil and gas supplies.
(C) CORRECT. If we assume that weather patterns are consistent and
predictable, then with the stated premises, we can conclude that solar and wind
power will be less risky than oil and gas. If, on the other hand, weather patterns
are not consistent and predictable, then solar and wind power are not reliable
and thus will not provide "stable energy supplies at low cost." Thus, the
argument's conclusion directly depends on this assumption.
(D) To reach the required conclusion, it is not necessary to assume that the
conversion technology for new sources is not more expensive than the present
technology.
(E) This choice does not directly affect the argument. Whether or not energy
produced through combustion can be made less risky, the new energy sources
might still be less risky than the older sources.

9. We are given two premises based on survey results: first, vanilla is the bestselling
flavor of ice cream and, second, those who prefer chocolate usually don't
order vanilla. The author concludes that vanilla-flavored candy should sell better
than chocolate-flavored candy. The author bases this conclusion on the
assumption that it is valid to extend the survey's results beyond ice cream to
include candy.
(A) As a stand-alone, this choice makes common sense but, in the argument, it
would undermine the author's conclusion. We are asked to find an assumption
upon which the author relies, which means the correct assumption should
support the author's conclusion.
(B) This choice is either irrelevant at best (the survey does not address children
specifically) or would undermine the author's conclusion, at worst. We are asked
to find an assumption upon which the author relies, which means the correct
assumption should support the author's conclusion. (C) Preferences for flavors
neither vanilla nor chocolate are outside of the scope of this argument.
(D) This choice addresses only ice cream preferences; it does not provide any
information to tie ice cream preferences to candy preferences.
(E) CORRECT. This assumption supports the author's conclusion by tying ice
cream preferences directly to candy preferences.

10. The conclusion of the argument is that the media are wrong in saying that the
economy is entering a phase of growth and prosperity. The basis for that claim is
that the number of people filing for bankruptcy has increased every month for the
last six months and that bankruptcy lawyers are busier than they have been in
years. In order for this argument to be valid, however, the author has to assume
that the increase in the number of bankruptcies is a result of the state of the
economy and not the result of something unrelated.
(A) This statement does not have to be true for the claim that the media are
wrong about the economy to hold. Even if unemployment rates are useful
indicators of growth and prosperity, the media could still be wrong about the
economy (e.g., if there are other indicators that show problems in other areas).
(B) This does not have to be true for the conclusion to hold. Productivity could
be a good measure of economic growth, but the media could still be wrong about
the economy (e.g., if there are other indicators that show problems in other
areas).
(C) CORRECT. This has to be true for the conclusion to hold. If legislation has
recently been passed that makes it easier to obtain bankruptcy, then the
evidence cited would be less relevant. The increased number of bankruptcies
could have been the result of the easier process rather than of a poor economy.
(D) This does not have to be true for the conclusion to hold. An increase in the
number of bankruptcy lawyers would not explain the increase in the number of
bankruptcy filings.
(E) This does not have to be true for the claim that the media are wrong about
the economy to hold. Even if the media did not often misrepresent the current
state of economic affairs, the argument that the media are wrong might still hold.

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New post 15 Oct 2012, 06:13
1
Q. Since the passage of the state’s Clean Air Act ten years ago, the level of industrial pollutants in the air has fallen by an average of 18 percent. This suggests that the restrictions on industry embodied in the act have worked effectively. However, during the same period the state has also suffered through a period of economic decline. The number of businesses in the state has fallen by 10 percent, and the number of workers employed has fallen by 12 percent. It is probable that the business decline, rather than the regulations in the act, is responsible for at least half of the decline in the pollution.

Which of the following, if true, would most seriously weaken the conclusion drawn in the passage above?

(A) During the last ten years, economic conditions in the nation as a whole have been worse than those within the state.
(B) Amendments to the Clean Air Act that were enacted six years ago have substantially strengthened its restrictions on industrial air pollution.
(C) Of the businesses that ceased operating in the state during the last ten years, only 5 percent were engaged in air-polluting industries.
(D) Several large corporations left the state during the last ten years partly in order to avoid compliance with the Clean Air Act.
(E) Due to its small budget, the state office charged with enforcement of the Clean Air Act has prosecuted only two violators of the law since its passage.

CONCLUSION: It is probable that the business decline, rather than the regulations in the act, is responsible for at least half of the decline in the pollution.

FACTS: Pollutants down by 18%, business down by 10% and workers down by 12%

Prephrasing: We need something that gives us a signal that the ACT and not the business decline is responsible for the decline

A) doesnt address any of the 2 issues
B) this is weird. Why would stricter regulations be responsible? Also this does not addresses the business decline
D) A lot of businesses left so it appears that pollution was less because of business withdrawal. Strengthens.
E) Says that the the ACT has not been very helpful. Strengthens again.


C) This means that the major businesses that cause pollution are still there. So it must be the ACT that has reduced the pollution. Good One. CORRECT!
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Re: GMATCLUB VERBAL ATTACK  [#permalink]

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New post 16 Oct 2012, 08:51
1
1

SENTENCE CORRECTION ATTACK: MODIFIERS!



No theory! We will learn with the questions and answers!!


1. Although covered in about 11 inches of snow, aviation officials said that conditions on the
runway at the time of the emergency landing was acceptable.
• aviation officials said that conditions on the runway at the time of the emergency landing was
acceptable
• the runway conditions during the emergency landing were acceptable according to aviation
officials
• according to aviation officials, the runway was in acceptable condition during the time of the
emergency landing
• the runway was in acceptable condition during the emergency landing, according to aviation
officials
• aviation officials said that conditions on the runway at the time of the emergency landing were
acceptable

2. Discouraged by new data that show increases in toxic emissions from domestic factories,
searches for alternative investment opportunities are being conducted by shareholders of the
nation’s leading manufacturing companies.
• searches for alternative investment opportunities are being conducted by shareholders of the
nation’s leading manufacturing companies
• searches are being conducted by shareholders of the nation’s leading manufacturing
companies who are looking for alternative investment opportunities
• shareholders of the nation’s leading manufacturing companies had begun searching for
investment opportunities outside of the manufacturing industry
• the nation’s leading manufacturing companies are searching for alternative investment
opportunities for its shareholders
• shareholders of the nation’s leading manufacturing companies are searching for alternative
investment opportunities

3. Found in the wild only in Australia and New Guinea, powerful back legs with long feet
distinguish kangaroos from other large mammals.
• powerful back legs with long feet distinguish kangaroos from other large mammals
• powerful back legs with long feet distinguish kangaroos from other mammals that are large
• powerful back legs with long feet distinguish kangaroos from those of other mammals that are
large
• kangaroos are distinguished from other large mammals by powerful legs with long feet
• kangaroos are being distinguished from other mammals that are large by powerful legs with
long feet
4. Responding to growing demand for high-end vehicles, the interiors of the newest models are
so luxurious that they sell for nearly twice the price of last year's models.
• the interiors of the newest models are so luxurious that they sell
• the interiors of the newest models are so luxurious that the cars are sold
• auto makers have installed interiors in the newest models that are so luxurious that they sell
• the interior of the newest models are so luxurious that they are sold
• auto makers have installed such luxurious interiors in the newest models that these cars sell

5. By applying optimization techniques commonly used to plan operations, it is possible to
determine how much effort ought to be devoted to each of a company’s products in order to
meet its goals in both the short and long terms.
• it is possible to determine how much effort ought to be devoted to each of a company’s
products in order to meet its goals in both the short and long terms
• a company’s managers can determine how much effort should be dedicated to each of the
company’s products in order to meet its short and long term goals
• it can be determined by company managers how much effort ought to be devoted to each of
the company’s products in order to meet its goals, both short and long term
• it may be possible for company managers to determine how much effort should be dedicated
to each of these products in order to meet the company’s short and long term goals
• managers at a company can determine how much effort ought to be dedicated to each of
these products in order to meet the company’s goals in both the short and long term

6. Given its authoritative coverage of other science topics, the textbook's chapter on genetics is
surprisingly tentative, which leads one to doubt the author's scholarship in that particular area.
• the textbook's chapter on genetics is surprisingly tentative, which leads
• the chapter of the textbook on genetics is surprisingly tentative, leading
• the textbook contains a surprising and tentative chapter on genetics, which leads
• the textbook's chapter on genetics is surprisingly tentative and leads
• the textbook is surprisingly tentative in its chapter on genetics, leading

7. Hailed as a key discovery in the science of evolution, the fossils of a large scaly creature
resembling both a fish and a land-animal provide evidence of a possible link in the
evolutionary chain from water-based to land-based organisms.
• the fossils of a large scaly creature resembling both a fish and a land-animal provide evidence
of
• a large scaly creature resembling both a fish and a land-animal provides fossils that are
evidence
• a large scaly creature, whose fossils resemble both a fish and a land-animal, provides evidence
of
• the fossils of a large scaly creature, which resembles both a fish and a land-animal, provides
evidence of
• the fossils of a large scaly creature resemble both a fish and a land-animal and provide
evidence of

8. Hoping to alleviate some of the financial burdens of a growing population, property taxes last
year were raised by an eleven percent increase by the county government.
• property taxes last year were raised by an eleven percent increase by the county government
• property taxes were raised by eleven percent last year by the county government
• the county government raised property taxes by an eleven percent increase last year
• the county government last year raised by eleven percent property taxes
• the county government raised property taxes by eleven percent last year

9. In order to properly evaluate a patient’s state of mind and gain informed consent prior to
surgery, a substantial period of time must be spent with the operating physician by the patient
to become fully aware of the pros and cons of undergoing a surgical procedure.
• a substantial period of time must be spent with the operating physician by the patient to
become fully aware of the pros and cons of undergoing a surgical procedure
• the operating physician and the patient must spend a substantial amount of time together,
thus ensuring full awareness of the pros and cons of undergoing the surgical procedure
• the patient must spend a substantial amount of time with his or her operating physician, thus
ensuring that he or she has been made fully aware of the pros and cons of undergoing the
surgical procedure
• the operating physician must spend a substantial amount of time with the patient, thus
ensuring that the patient is fully aware of the pros and cons of accepting the undergoing
procedure
• the operating physician must ensure that he or she is fully aware of the pros and cons of
undergoing a surgical procedure by spending a substantial amount of time with the patient

10. Many daring vacationers who participate in guided boat tours on the Tarcoles River encounter
native crocodiles lurking in the shallows, whose eyes and noses are peaking out from the
surface of the murky water.
• encounter native crocodiles lurking in the shallows,whose eyes and noses are peaking out
• encountered native crocodiles lurking in the shallows, whose eyes and noses peak out
• had encountered native crocodiles lurking in the shallows, whose eyes and noses peak out
• encounter native crocodiles lurking in the shallows,with eyes and noses peaking out
• encounter native crocodiles lurking in the shallows,with eyes and noses that are peaking out

11. Before its independence in 1947, Britain ruled India as a colony and they would relinquish
power only after a long struggle by the native people.
• Before its independence in 1947, Britain ruled India as a colony and they would relinquish
power
• Before independence in 1947, Britain had ruled India as a colony and relinquished power
• Before its independence in 1947, India was ruled by Britain as a colony and they relinquished
power
• Before independence in 1947, India had been ruled as a colony by Britain, which relinquished
power
• Before independence in 1947, India had been a colony of the British, who relinquished power
12. Used until the end of the Second World War, the German army employed the U-boat to attack
both military or civilian watercraft.
• the German army employed the U-boat to attack both military or
• the U-boat was employed by the German army to attack both military and
• the U-boat employed the German army to attack both military or
• the German army had employed the U-Boat to attack both military and the
• the U-boat has been employed by the German army to attack both military and also

13. Though most people take it for granted now, the nation wide admission of students to colleges
and universities based on academic merit is a relatively recent phenomenon, beginning only
after World War II.
• Though most people take it for granted now, the nationwide admission of students to colleges
and universities based on academic merit
• Though it is now taken for granted by most people, the admission of nationwide students to
colleges and universities based on academic merit
• Now taken for granted by most people, colleges and universities admitting students based on
their academic merit
• Most take them for granted now, but the admission of nationwide students to colleges and
universities based on their academic merit
• Most people now take for granted that colleges and universities admit students nationally
based on academic merit, and it

14. According to Italy's top anti-Mafia prosecutor, the ailing mobster came to take refuge in
Corleone, a town famous because of the “The Godfather” and near to those he most trusted.
• the ailing mobster came to take refuge in Corleone,a town famous because of “The
Godfather” and near to those he most trusted
• famous because of “The Godfather,” the ailing mobster came to take refuge in Corleone, a
town near to those he most trusted
• the ailing mobster, famous because of “The Godfather,” came to take refuge in Corleone, a
town near to those he most trusted
• near to those he most trusted, the ailing mobster came to take refuge in Corleone, a town
famous because of “The Godfather”
• Corleone, famous because of “The Godfather,” was thetown that the ailing mobster came to
take refuge in because it was near to those he most trusted

15. The author Herman Melville and the poet Walt Whitman are icons of American literature,
greatly beloved by generations past and present.
• The author Herman Melville and the poet Walt Whitman are icons
• Herman Melville the author and Walt Whitman the poet are icons
• The author named Herman Melville and the poet named Walt Whitman are great icons
• The author, Herman Melville, and the poet, Walt Whitman, are icons
• Herman Melville, the author, and Walt Whitman, the poet, had been icons

16. Jean-Jacques Rousseau contended that man is good only when in "the state of nature" but is
corrupted by society, that compels man to compare himself to others.
• man is good only when in "the state of nature" but is corrupted by society, that
• only man is good when in "the state of nature" but is corrupted by society, that
• man is good when in "the state of nature" but is corrupted only by society, that
• only man is good when in "the state of nature" but is corrupted by society, which
• man is good only when in "the state of nature" but is corrupted by society, which

17. Though the language of Beowulf is practically incomprehensible to contemporary readers,
careful linguistic analysis reveals a multitude of similarities to modern English.
• Though the language of Beowulf is practically incomprehensible to contemporary readers,
careful linguistic analysis reveals a multitude of similarities to modern English.
• Despite that it is practically incomprehensible to contemporary readers, careful linguistic
analysis reveals that the language of Beowulf has a multitude of similarities to modern English.
• Though being practically incomprehensible to contemporary readers, the language of Beowulf
reveals through careful linguistic analysis a multitude of similarities to modern English.
• Though Beowulf has a language that is practically incomprehensible to contemporary readers,
a multitude of similarities are revealed to modern English through careful linguistic analysis.
• Despite having practically incomprehensible language to contemporary readers, Beowulf
reveals through careful linguistic analysis a multitude of similarities to modern English.

18. Fusion, the process through which the sun produces heat and light, has been studied by
scientists,some of whom have attempted to mimic the process intheir laboratories by blasting
a container of liquid solvent with strong ultrasonic vibrations.
• Fusion, the process through which the sun produces heat and light, has been studied by
scientists,
• Fusion, the heat and light produced by the sun, has been studied by scientists,
• Fusion, the process through which heat and light are produced by the sun, has been studied
by scientists,
• Scientists have studied fusion, the process the sun uses to produce heat and light,
• Scientists have studied fusion, the process the sun uses to produce heat and light, and

19. Pests had destroyed grape, celery, chili pepper crops, sugar beet and walnut in the region, but
in the 1880s, more effective pest-control methods saved the citrus industry.
• Pests had destroyed grape, celery, chili pepper crops,sugar beet and walnut in the region, but
in the 1880s, more effective pest-control methods saved the citrus industry.
• Pests had destroyed grape, celery, chili pepper, sugar beet and walnut crops in the region, but
in the 1880s, more effective pest-control methods saved the citrus industry.
• Pests had destroyed grape, celery, chili pepper, sugar beet and walnut crops in the region, but
more effective pest-control methods that were introduced in the 1880s saved the citrus
industry.
• In the 1880s, pests destroyed grape, celery, chili pepper, sugar beet and walnut crops in the
region and more effective pest-control methods saved the citrus industry.
• In the 1880s, more effective pest-control methods saved the citrus industry from what was
destroying grape, celery, chili pepper, sugar beet and walnut crops in the region.

20. Classical guitar was neither prestigious nor was often played in concert halls until it was
revived by Andres Segovia in the mid-twentieth century, having been won over by the
instrument's sound despite its relative obscurity.
• Classical guitar was neither prestigious nor was often played in concert halls until it was
revived by Andres Segovia in the mid-twentieth century, having been won over by the
instrument's sound despite its relative obscurity.
• Classical guitar was neither prestigious nor played often in concert halls until it was revived by
Andres Segovia in the mid-twentieth century, having been won over by the instrument's sound
despite its relative obscurity.
• Classical guitar was not prestigious and was not often played in concert halls until Andres
Segovia revived it in the mid-twentieth century, after he was won over by the sound despite
the instrument's relative obscurity.
• Classical guitar did not have prestige nor was it performed often in concert halls until its
revival by Andres Segovia, who in the mid-twentieth century was won over by the instrument's
sound despite its relative obscurity.
• Classical guitar was neither prestigious nor was often played in concert halls until Andres
Segovia revived it in the mid-twentieth century, when he was won over by the sound of the
relatively obscure instrument.

21. The physicist Richard Feynman presented a comprehensive introduction to modern physics
designed for undergraduate students in a two-year course.
• The physicist Richard Feynman presented a comprehensive introduction to modern physics
designed for undergraduate students in a two-year course.
• For undergraduate students, the physicist Richard Feynman presented a two-year course,
being a comprehensive introduction to modern physics.
• A comprehensive introduction was in a two-year course by the physicist Richard Feynman
presenting to undergraduate students an introduction to modern physics.
• Presenting a comprehensive introduction, the physicist Richard Feynman introduced modern
physics in a two-year course designed for undergraduate students.
• In a two-year course designed for undergraduate students, the physicist Richard Feynman
presented a comprehensive introduction to modern physics.

22. Descending approximately 4,000 years ago from the African wildcat, it has been an
exceedingly short time for the domestic cat with respect to genetic evolution and it scarcely
seems sufficient to allow the marked physical changes that transformed the animal.
• Descending approximately 4,000 years ago from the African wildcat, it has been an
exceedingly short time for the domestic cat with respect to genetic evolution and it scarcely
seems sufficient to allow the marked physical changes that transformed the animal.
• The domestic cat descended from the African wildcat approximately 4,000 years ago, which is
an exceedingly short time for the domestic cat's genetic evolution and scarcely sufficient for
the marked physical changes that transformed the animal.
• Descending from the African wildcat approximately 4,000 years ago, the domestic cat has had
an exceedingly short time for its genetic evolution and has been scarcely sufficient for the
marked physical changes in the animal.
• Having descended from the African wildcat approximately 4,000 years ago, the domestic cat
has had an exceedingly short time for its genetic evolution that has scarcely been sufficient for
the marked physical changes that transformed the animal.
• The domestic cat descended from the African wildcat approximately 4,000 years ago, an
exceedingly recent divergence with respect to genetic evolution and one which scarcely seems
sufficient to allow the marked physical changes in the animal.


Sorry about no underlining and a couple of Typos!
Otherwise, its a killer set!

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Re: GMATCLUB VERBAL ATTACK  [#permalink]

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New post 16 Oct 2012, 10:14
3
Quote:
1. Although covered in about 11 inches of snow, aviation officials said that conditions on the
runway at the time of the emergency landing was acceptable
.

• aviation officials said that conditions on the runway at the time of the emergency landing was
acceptable
• the runway conditions during the emergency landing were acceptable according to aviation
officials
• according to aviation officials, the runway was in acceptable condition during the time of the
emergency landing
• the runway was in acceptable condition during the emergency landing, according to aviation
officials
• aviation officials said that conditions on the runway at the time of the emergency landing were
acceptable

2. Discouraged by new data that show increases in toxic emissions from domestic factories,
searches for alternative investment opportunities are being conducted by shareholders of the
nation’s leading manufacturing companies.


• searches for alternative investment opportunities are being conducted by shareholders of the
nation’s leading manufacturing companies
• searches are being conducted by shareholders of the nation’s leading manufacturing
companies who are looking for alternative investment opportunities
• shareholders of the nation’s leading manufacturing companies had begun searching for
investment opportunities outside of the manufacturing industry
• the nation’s leading manufacturing companies are searching for alternative investment
opportunities for its shareholders
• shareholders of the nation’s leading manufacturing companies are searching for alternative
investment opportunities

3. Found in the wild only in Australia and New Guinea, powerful back legs with long feet
distinguish kangaroos from other large mammals.


• powerful back legs with long feet distinguish kangaroos from other large mammals
• powerful back legs with long feet distinguish kangaroos from other mammals that are large
• powerful back legs with long feet distinguish kangaroos from those of other mammals that are
large
• kangaroos are distinguished from other large mammals by powerful legs with long feet
• kangaroos are being distinguished from other mammals that are large by powerful legs with
long feet

4. Responding to growing demand for high-end vehicles, the interiors of the newest models are
so luxurious that they sell
for nearly twice the price of last year's models.

• the interiors of the newest models are so luxurious that they sell
• the interiors of the newest models are so luxurious that the cars are sold
• auto makers have installed interiors in the newest models that are so luxurious that they sell
• the interior of the newest models are so luxurious that they are sold
• auto makers have installed such luxurious interiors in the newest models that these cars sell

5. By applying optimization techniques commonly used to plan operations, it is possible to
determine how much effort ought to be devoted to each of a company’s products in order to
meet its goals in both the short and long terms.


• it is possible to determine how much effort ought to be devoted to each of a company’s
products in order to meet its goals in both the short and long terms
• a company’s managers can determine how much effort should be dedicated to each of the
company’s products in order to meet its short and long term goals
• it can be determined by company managers how much effort ought to be devoted to each of
the company’s products in order to meet its goals, both short and long term
• it may be possible for company managers to determine how much effort should be dedicated
to each of these products in order to meet the company’s short and long term goals
• managers at a company can determine how much effort ought to be dedicated to each of
these products in order to meet the company’s goals in both the short and long term

6. Given its authoritative coverage of other science topics, the textbook's chapter on genetics is
surprisingly tentative, which leads
one to doubt the author's scholarship in that particular area.

• the textbook's chapter on genetics is surprisingly tentative, which leads
• the chapter of the textbook on genetics is surprisingly tentative, leading
• the textbook contains a surprising and tentative chapter on genetics, which leads
• the textbook's chapter on genetics is surprisingly tentative and leads
• the textbook is surprisingly tentative in its chapter on genetics, leading

7. Hailed as a key discovery in the science of evolution, the fossils of a large scaly creature
resembling both a fish and a land-animal provide evidence of
a possible link in the
evolutionary chain from water-based to land-based organisms.

• the fossils of a large scaly creature resembling both a fish and a land-animal provide evidence
of
• a large scaly creature resembling both a fish and a land-animal provides fossils that are
evidence
• a large scaly creature, whose fossils resemble both a fish and a land-animal, provides evidence
of
• the fossils of a large scaly creature, which resembles both a fish and a land-animal, provides
evidence of
• the fossils of a large scaly creature resemble both a fish and a land-animal and provide
evidence of

8. Hoping to alleviate some of the financial burdens of a growing population, property taxes last
year were raised by an eleven percent increase by the county government.


• property taxes last year were raised by an eleven percent increase by the county government
• property taxes were raised by eleven percent last year by the county government
• the county government raised property taxes by an eleven percent increase last year
• the county government last year raised by eleven percent property taxes
• the county government raised property taxes by eleven percent last year

9. In order to properly evaluate a patient’s state of mind and gain informed consent prior to
surgery, a substantial period of time must be spent with the operating physician by the patient
to become fully aware of the pros and cons of undergoing a surgical procedure.


• a substantial period of time must be spent with the operating physician by the patient to
become fully aware of the pros and cons of undergoing a surgical procedure
• the operating physician and the patient must spend a substantial amount of time together,
thus ensuring full awareness of the pros and cons of undergoing the surgical procedure
• the patient must spend a substantial amount of time with his or her operating physician, thus
ensuring that he or she has been made fully aware of the pros and cons of undergoing the
surgical procedure
• the operating physician must spend a substantial amount of time with the patient, thus
ensuring that the patient is fully aware of the pros and cons of accepting the undergoing
procedure
• the operating physician must ensure that he or she is fully aware of the pros and cons of
undergoing a surgical procedure by spending a substantial amount of time with the patient

10. Many daring vacationers who participate in guided boat tours on the Tarcoles River encounter
native crocodiles lurking in the shallows, whose eyes and noses are peaking out
from the
surface of the murky water.

• encounter native crocodiles lurking in the shallows,whose eyes and noses are peaking out
• encountered native crocodiles lurking in the shallows, whose eyes and noses peak out
• had encountered native crocodiles lurking in the shallows, whose eyes and noses peak out
• encounter native crocodiles lurking in the shallows,with eyes and noses peaking out
• encounter native crocodiles lurking in the shallows,with eyes and noses that are peaking out

11. Before its independence in 1947, Britain ruled India as a colony and they would relinquish
power
only after a long struggle by the native people.

• Before its independence in 1947, Britain ruled India as a colony and they would relinquish
power
• Before independence in 1947, Britain had ruled India as a colony and relinquished power
• Before its independence in 1947, India was ruled by Britain as a colony and they relinquished
power
• Before independence in 1947, India had been ruled as a colony by Britain, which relinquished
power
• Before independence in 1947, India had been a colony of the British, who relinquished power

12. Used until the end of the Second World War, the German army employed the U-boat to attack
both military or
civilian watercraft.

• the German army employed the U-boat to attack both military or
• the U-boat was employed by the German army to attack both military and
• the U-boat employed the German army to attack both military or
• the German army had employed the U-Boat to attack both military and the
• the U-boat has been employed by the German army to attack both military and also

13. Though most people take it for granted now, the nation wide admission of students to colleges
and universities based on academic merit
is a relatively recent phenomenon, beginning only
after World War II.

• Though most people take it for granted now, the nationwide admission of students to colleges
and universities based on academic merit
• Though it is now taken for granted by most people, the admission of nationwide students to
colleges and universities based on academic merit
• Now taken for granted by most people, colleges and universities admitting students based on
their academic merit
• Most take them for granted now, but the admission of nationwide students to colleges and
universities based on their academic merit
• Most people now take for granted that colleges and universities admit students nationally
based on academic merit, and it

14. According to Italy's top anti-Mafia prosecutor, the ailing mobster came to take refuge in
Corleone, a town famous because of the “The Godfather” and near to those he most trusted.

• the ailing mobster came to take refuge in Corleone,a town famous because of “The
Godfather” and near to those he most trusted
• famous because of “The Godfather,” the ailing mobster came to take refuge in Corleone, a
town near to those he most trusted
• the ailing mobster, famous because of “The Godfather,” came to take refuge in Corleone, a
town near to those he most trusted
• near to those he most trusted, the ailing mobster came to take refuge in Corleone, a town
famous because of “The Godfather”
• Corleone, famous because of “The Godfather,” was thetown that the ailing mobster came to
take refuge in because it was near to those he most trusted

15. The author Herman Melville and the poet Walt Whitman are icons of American literature,
greatly beloved by generations past and present.

• The author Herman Melville and the poet Walt Whitman are icons
• Herman Melville the author and Walt Whitman the poet are icons
• The author named Herman Melville and the poet named Walt Whitman are great icons
• The author, Herman Melville, and the poet, Walt Whitman, are icons
• Herman Melville, the author, and Walt Whitman, the poet, had been icons

16. Jean-Jacques Rousseau contended that man is good only when in "the state of nature" but is
corrupted by society, that
compels man to compare himself to others.

• man is good only when in "the state of nature" but is corrupted by society, that
• only man is good when in "the state of nature" but is corrupted by society, that
• man is good when in "the state of nature" but is corrupted only by society, that
• only man is good when in "the state of nature" but is corrupted by society, which
• man is good only when in "the state of nature" but is corrupted by society, which

17. Though the language of Beowulf is practically incomprehensible to contemporary readers,
careful linguistic analysis reveals a multitude of similarities to modern English.

• Though the language of Beowulf is practically incomprehensible to contemporary readers,
careful linguistic analysis reveals a multitude of similarities to modern English.
• Despite that it is practically incomprehensible to contemporary readers, careful linguistic
analysis reveals that the language of Beowulf has a multitude of similarities to modern English.
• Though being practically incomprehensible to contemporary readers, the language of Beowulf
reveals through careful linguistic analysis a multitude of similarities to modern English.
• Though Beowulf has a language that is practically incomprehensible to contemporary readers,
a multitude of similarities are revealed to modern English through careful linguistic analysis.
• Despite having practically incomprehensible language to contemporary readers, Beowulf
reveals through careful linguistic analysis a multitude of similarities to modern English.

18. Fusion, the process through which the sun produces heat and light, has been studied by
scientists,
some of whom have attempted to mimic the process intheir laboratories by blasting
a container of liquid solvent with strong ultrasonic vibrations.

• Fusion, the process through which the sun produces heat and light, has been studied by
scientists,
• Fusion, the heat and light produced by the sun, has been studied by scientists,
• Fusion, the process through which heat and light are produced by the sun, has been studied
by scientists,
• Scientists have studied fusion, the process the sun uses to produce heat and light,
• Scientists have studied fusion, the process the sun uses to produce heat and light, and

19. Pests had destroyed grape, celery, chili pepper crops, sugar beet and walnut in the region, but
in the 1880s, more effective pest-control methods saved the citrus industry.


• Pests had destroyed grape, celery, chili pepper crops,sugar beet and walnut in the region, but
in the 1880s, more effective pest-control methods saved the citrus industry.
• Pests had destroyed grape, celery, chili pepper, sugar beet and walnut crops in the region, but
in the 1880s, more effective pest-control methods saved the citrus industry.
• Pests had destroyed grape, celery, chili pepper, sugar beet and walnut crops in the region, but
more effective pest-control methods that were introduced in the 1880s saved the citrus
industry.
• In the 1880s, pests destroyed grape, celery, chili pepper, sugar beet and walnut crops in the
region and more effective pest-control methods saved the citrus industry.
• In the 1880s, more effective pest-control methods saved the citrus industry from what was
destroying grape, celery, chili pepper, sugar beet and walnut crops in the region.

20. Classical guitar was neither prestigious nor was often played in concert halls until it was
revived by Andres Segovia in the mid-twentieth century, having been won over by the
instrument's sound despite its relative obscurity.


• Classical guitar was neither prestigious nor was often played in concert halls until it was
revived by Andres Segovia in the mid-twentieth century, having been won over by the
instrument's sound despite its relative obscurity.
• Classical guitar was neither prestigious nor played often in concert halls until it was revived by
Andres Segovia in the mid-twentieth century, having been won over by the instrument's sound
despite its relative obscurity.
• Classical guitar was not prestigious and was not often played in concert halls until Andres
Segovia revived it in the mid-twentieth century, after he was won over by the sound despite
the instrument's relative obscurity.
• Classical guitar did not have prestige nor was it performed often in concert halls until its
revival by Andres Segovia, who in the mid-twentieth century was won over by the instrument's
sound despite its relative obscurity.
• Classical guitar was neither prestigious nor was often played in concert halls until Andres
Segovia revived it in the mid-twentieth century, when he was won over by the sound of the
relatively obscure instrument.

21. The physicist Richard Feynman presented a comprehensive introduction to modern physics
designed for undergraduate students in a two-year course.

• The physicist Richard Feynman presented a comprehensive introduction to modern physics
designed for undergraduate students in a two-year course.
• For undergraduate students, the physicist Richard Feynman presented a two-year course,
being a comprehensive introduction to modern physics.
• A comprehensive introduction was in a two-year course by the physicist Richard Feynman
presenting to undergraduate students an introduction to modern physics.
• Presenting a comprehensive introduction, the physicist Richard Feynman introduced modern
physics in a two-year course designed for undergraduate students.
• In a two-year course designed for undergraduate students, the physicist Richard Feynman
presented a comprehensive introduction to modern physics.

22. Descending approximately 4,000 years ago from the African wildcat, it has been an
exceedingly short time for the domestic cat with respect to genetic evolution and it scarcely
seems sufficient to allow the marked physical changes that transformed the animal.


• Descending approximately 4,000 years ago from the African wildcat, it has been an
exceedingly short time for the domestic cat with respect to genetic evolution and it scarcely
seems sufficient to allow the marked physical changes that transformed the animal.
• The domestic cat descended from the African wildcat approximately 4,000 years ago, which is
an exceedingly short time for the domestic cat's genetic evolution and scarcely sufficient for
the marked physical changes that transformed the animal.
• Descending from the African wildcat approximately 4,000 years ago, the domestic cat has had
an exceedingly short time for its genetic evolution and has been scarcely sufficient for the
marked physical changes in the animal.
• Having descended from the African wildcat approximately 4,000 years ago, the domestic cat
has had an exceedingly short time for its genetic evolution that has scarcely been sufficient for
the marked physical changes that transformed the animal.
• The domestic cat descended from the African wildcat approximately 4,000 years ago, an
exceedingly recent divergence with respect to genetic evolution and one which scarcely seems
sufficient to allow the marked physical changes in the animal.


I did it for souvik :) enjoy
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Re: GMATCLUB VERBAL ATTACK  [#permalink]

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New post 21 Oct 2012, 00:53
Hi Souvik - Do you have any set that comprises of Number and percentage CR? I guess they appear more often in all types of question. Any such set will be of great help......

Eagerly awaiting for your response....
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Re: GMATCLUB VERBAL ATTACK  [#permalink]

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New post 25 Oct 2012, 22:54
Jp27 wrote:
Hi Souvik - Do you have any set that comprises of Number and percentage CR? I guess they appear more often in all types of question. Any such set will be of great help......

Eagerly awaiting for your response....


Here you go
Critical Reasoning Problems: Numbers and Statistics (the Overlap between verbal and quantitative reasoning)
Critical Reasoning: Problems with Numbers and Statistics (part 2)

Also you can check this thursdays-with-ron-critical-reasoning-series-critical-140883.html

Souvik
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Re: GMATCLUB VERBAL ATTACK  [#permalink]

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New post 25 Oct 2012, 23:05
1
1
MODIFIER SET OE
1. The modifying phrase “although covered in about 11 inches of snow” at the
beginning of this sentence should be followed by the noun the modifier refers
to, “the runway.” The original sentence illogicallysuggests that “aviation
officials” were covered in about 11 inches of snow.Additionally, the plural
subject "conditions" does not agree with the singular verb "was acceptable."
(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) The modifying phrase “although covered in about11 inches of snow” at the
beginning of this sentence should be followed by the noun the modifier refers
to, “the runway.” Note that in the noun phrase "therunway conditions," the
word "runway" acts as an adjectivemodifying the noun "conditions."
(C) This choice incorrectly uses the redundant phrase “during the time of”
instead of “during.” Further, the placement of "acc ording to aviation officials"
makes it unclear whether the officials stated that the runway was "covered in
about 11 inches of snow" or that "the runway was inacceptable condition."
(D) CORRECT.The modifying phrase “although covered in about 11inches of
snow” is correctly followed by the noun the modifier refers to, “the runway.”
Additionally, the phrase "according to aviation officials" is placed at the end of
the sentence, unambiguously referring to the main clause ("the runway was in
acceptable condition").
(E) The modifying phrase “although covered in about11 inches of snow” at the
beginning of this sentence should be followed by the noun the modifier refers
to, “the runway.”

2. The original sentence contains a misplaced modifier. The modifying phrase
“Discouraged by new data that show increases in toxic emissions from
domestic factories” is meant to modify the noun “shareholders.” Therefore,
“shareholders” should be placed directly after “factories.” Instead, it seems that
the “searches” are “Discouraged by new data,” whichis not logical.
Additionally, the passive construction “are being conducted by” is
unnecessarily wordy.
(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) The modifying phrase “Discouraged by new data that show increases in
toxic emissions from domestic factories” is meant to modify the noun
“shareholders.” Therefore, “shareholders” should beplaced directly after
“factories.” Instead, it seems that the “searches” are “Discouraged by new
data,” which is not logical. Also, the passive construction “are being conducted
by” is unnecessarily wordy. Finally, the placement of “who are looking for
alternative investment opportunities” after “companies” makes it seem that the
“companies” are “searching for alternative investment opportunities.” According
to the original sentence, the “shareholders” are looking for these
“opportunities,” not the “companies.”
(C) While the misplaced modifier issue is correctedby placing “shareholders”
adjacent to the modifying phrase, the past perfect form of the verb, “had
begun,’’ is used unnecessarily. In fact, the use of“had begun” implies that the
“shareholders” had begun searching for new investment opportunities before
the discouraging data were released. This is not the intended meaning of the
sentence. Also, “investment opportunities outside of the manufacturing
industry” is wordy when compared with “alternative investment opportunities.”
(D) The placement of “the nation’s leading manufacturing companies” adjacent
to the modifying phrase makes it seem that these companies are “Discouraged
by new data,” which changes the meaning of the sentence. The original
meaning is further compromised by “companies are searching.” The
“shareholders” are searching for new opportunities,not the companies.
(E) CORRECT.The misplaced modifier issue is corrected by placing
“shareholders” adjacent to the modifying phrase. Itis clear that the
“shareholders” are “searching,” and not the companies. The active voice "are
searching" replaces the wordy passive construction "searches. . . are being
conducted by." Finally, the phrase “alternative investment opportunities” is
clear and concise.
3. The original sentence incorrectly separates the modifier “Found in the wild only
in Australia and New Guinea” from the noun described by this modifier,
“kangaroos,” thus illogically suggesting that “powerful legs” rather than
“kangaroos” “are found in the wild.” Modifiers should always be placed
immediately next to the nouns that they describe.
(A) This answer choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) The answer choice incorrectly separates the modifier “Found in the wild
only in Australia and New Guinea” from the noun described by this modifier,
“kangaroos,” thus illogically suggesting that “powerful legs” rather than
“kangaroos” “are found in the wild.” In addition, the construction “mammals that
are large” is unnecessarily wordy; a simpler and more concise form, “large
mammals” would be preferred.
(C) The answer choice incorrectly separates the modifier “Found in the wild
only in Australia and New Guinea” from the noun described by this modifier,
“kangaroos,” thus illogically suggesting that “powerful legs” rather than
“kangaroos” “are found in the wild.” In addition, by introducing the relative
pronoun “those” that refers to “powerful legs,” this answer choice illogically
attempts to draw a comparison between “kangaroos” and “legs” of other
animals, rather than the animals themselves.
(D) CORRECT.This answer choice correctly places the appropriate noun
“kangaroos” immediately after the modifier “Found in the wild only in Australia
and New Guinea.” In addition, this answer choice isclear, concise, and free of
the redundancies present in other answers.
(E) While this answer choice remedies the original problem with the modifier, it
uses the awkward and wordy verb construction “beingdistinguished” rather
than the more concise and direct verb “distinguished.” Furthermore, the
construction “mammals that are large” is unnecessarily wordy; a simpler and
more concise form “large mammals” would be preferred.

4. The original sentence begins with a modifier "Responding to growing demand for
high-end vehicles," but this modifier has no logical subject within the main clause. The
subject of the sentence should be the people or organizations that respond to this
growing demand.
Moreover, the pronoun "they" is ambiguous, as it could grammatically refer either to
the interiors or to the models. We know that the intended antecedent of "they" is the
cars, so we need to find a choice that makes this intention clear. Finally, the modifier
"that are so luxurious" should be placed immediately after "interiors," not
"models"; otherwise, an alternative phrasing without this modifier should be found.
(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) The choice repeats the original modifier error:the subject of the modifier is not
present in the sentence.
(C) This choice repeats the original pronoun error:"they" is ambiguous and could
refer to either interiors or models. Also, the modifier "that are so luxurious" is placed
incorrectly.
(D) This choice repeats both the original modifier error and the original pronoun
error. Also, "interior" should be plural.
(E) CORRECT.This choice correctly introduces "auto makers" asthe subject of the
sentence and also corrects the pronoun error by replacing "they" with "these cars."
Note that the use of the synonym "cars" avoids boththe awkward repetition of
"models" and the ambiguity of the pronoun "they."

5. This sentence begins with a modifier, yet leaves absent who will be applying
optimization techniques (This is termed a "dangling" modifier.) Also, the sentence is
unnecessarily wordy in its use of the phrases “ought to” and “in both the short and
long terms.”
(A) This choice incorrectly repeats the original sentence.
(B) CORRECT.The sentence correctly places “a company’s managers” adjacent to
the modifier such that the meaning is clear, and the sentence is otherwise concise.
(C) This answer does not correct the original modifier error. It also weakens the
sentence by replacing the active voice with the passive voice in its use of “can be
determined by company managers.” The sentence’s concluding use of “goals, both
short and long term” is awkward.
(D) This answer does not correct the original modifier error. In this choice, the
phrase “may be possible” is unnecessary and weakensthe sentence. This choice
also incorrectly uses the word “these,” as the products have not been referenced
earlier in the sentence.
(E) This sentence resolves the modifier issue, but incorrectly uses the word “these,”
as the products have not been referenced earlier inthe sentence. This choice is also
wordy in its use of “ought to” and “in both the short and long term.”

6. The original sentence contains several errors. First, the opening modifier "given its
authoritative coverage of other science topics" describes the textbook as a whole, yet
the subject of the main clause is "the textbook's chapter on genetics." Second, the
relative pronoun "which" is used here to modify theentire clause "the textbook's
chapter on genetics is surprisingly tentative." "Which" must modify the immediately
preceding noun only; it cannot modify the action ofan entire clause, as it does here.
(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) The modifier issue is not corrected here, since"the chapter" remains the subject
of the main clause (as opposed to "the textbook"). However, this choice does correct
the misuse of "which" by replacing it with "leading."
(C) The modifier issue is corrected here by making "the textbook" the subject of the
main clause. However, the misuse of "which" is retained. The relative pronoun
"which" is used here to modify the entire clause "the textbook's chapter on genetics is
surprisingly tentative." "Which" must modify the immediately preceding noun only; it
cannot modify the action of an entire clause, as itdoes here.
Also, the phrase "surprising and tentative" impliesthat the chapter on genetics
is both "surprising" and "tentative," two characteristics that are independent of
one another. However, it is clear in the original sentence that "surprisingly" is
meant to be an adverb that modifies the adjective "tentative." The chapter is
"suprisingly tentative," not "suprising and tentative."
(D) The modifier issue is not corrected here, since"the textbook's chapter" is the
subject of the main clause (as opposed to "the textbook").
Moreover, the verb "leads" is incorrectly parallel with "is" when it should be
subordinate (e.g., "leading"). This makes it less clear that doubting the author's
scholarship is a result of the tentativeness of thechapter on genetics.
(E) CORRECT.The modifier issue is corrected here by making "the textbook" the
subject of the main clause. Moreover, "which" is replaced by "leading," thus
eliminating the incorrect use of "which" while preserving the meaning of the sentence.

7. •This original sentence is correct as written. The word "fossils" is correctly
placed as the subject of the opening modifier "hailed as a key discovery in the
science of evolution." Also, the plural noun "fossils" agrees with the plural verb
"provide."
(A) CORRECT.This choice is correct as it repeats the original sentence.
•(B) In this choice, "a large scaly creature" is incorrectly placed as the subject of
the opening modifier "hailed as a key discovery in the science of evolution."
The fossils of the creature – not the creature itself – were discovered.
Moreover, the phrase "a large scaly creature . . . provides fossils that are a
possible link" distorts the meaning of the sentenceby nonsensically suggesting
that the creature "provides" its fossils; in fact the fossils were simply
discovered by scientists.
(C) In this choice, "a large scaly creature" is incorrectly placed as the subject of
the opening modifier "hailed as a key discovery in the science of evolution."
The fossils of the creature – not the creature itself – were discovered.
•(D) This choice correctly places the word "fossils" as the subject of the opening
modifier "hailed as a key discovery in the science of evolution." However, this
choice incorrectly employs the singular verb "provides," which does not agree
with the plural noun "fossils."
(E) This choice subtly changes the meaning of the original sentence. The use
of the word "and" in the phrase "the fossils resemble . . . and provide" creates
two distinct points: first, that the fossils resemble x, and, second, that the
fossils provide y. In contrast, in the original phrase "the fossils of a large scaly
creature resembling both a fish and a land-animal provide evidence of . . .," the
focus is clearly on how the fossils provide evidence. The modifying phrase
"resembling both a fish and a land-animal" demonstrates how the fossils
provide that evidence – it is not intended as a separate, unrelated point.

8. The modifying phrase “hoping to alleviate some of the financial burdens…” begins
this sentence and should be followed immediately bythe noun the modifier refers to,
“the county government.” However, the original sentence illogically suggests that
“property taxes” were hoping to alleviate the financial burdens. Additionally, the
phrase “raised by an eleven percent increase” contains a redundancy; either “raised
by eleven percent” or “increased by eleven percent”would be more concise and
correct. Finally, the passive construction “property taxes…were raised…by the county
government” is wordier than the preferred active construction “the county
government…raised…property taxes.”
(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) The modifying phrase “hoping to alleviate…” should be followed immediately by
the noun the modifier refers to, “the county government.” However, this choice
illogically suggests that “property taxes” were hoping to alleviate the financial
burdens. Also, the passive construction “property taxes…were raised…by the county
government” is wordier than the preferred active construction “the county
government…raised…property taxes.”
(C) The phrase “raised…by an eleven percent increase” contains a redundancy;
either “raised by eleven percent” or “increased by eleven percent” would be more
concise and correct.
(D) The phrase “last year raised by eleven percent property taxes” is awkward, since
“property taxes,” the object, do not immediately follow the verb “raised.” The meaning
would be clearer if it were phrased “raised property taxes by eleven percent last
year.”
(E) CORRECT.This choice is the most concise and correct. “The county government”
correctly follows the modifying phrase “hoping to alleviate…” The concise phrase
“raised…by eleven percent” is used. Finally, the active construction “the county
government…raised…property taxes” replaces the wordier passive construction
“property taxes…were raised…by the county government.”

9. The sentence begins with the modifier “In order to properly evaluate a patient’s
state of mind and gain informed consent prior to surgery.” This modifier
logically should apply to the modified noun “the operating physician,” as it is
the operating physician who must evaluate a patient’s state of mind and gain
informed consent. In other words, "in order to do X" most properly expresses
the intention of the subject of the sentence, and so the subject should be "the
operating physician." The original sentence is incorrect, as the modifier is
incorrectly followed by “a substantial period of time” as opposed to “the
operating physician.”
(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) In this sentence, the modifier is followed by the compound subject “the
operating physician and the patient.” This choice incorrectly suggests that it is
both the operating physician and the patient that must evaluate the patient’s
state of mind and gain informed consent, as opposedto the physician
alone. Also, the final phrase in the sentence, "thus ensuring full awareness..."
does not clarify exactly whosefull awareness is ensured (the awareness must
clearly be the patient's).
(C) This choice places “the patient” immediately after the initial modifier,
illogically and incorrectly suggesting that the patient him or herself will evaluate
the patient’s state of mind. In addition, the pronouns "he or she" are
ambiguous; they could refer to the patient or to the physician.
(D) CORRECT.This choice places the proper subject, “the operating
physician,” adjacent to the opening modifier. Additionally, it is 100% clear that
the patientis to be made fully aware of the pros and cons of undergoing the
surgical procedure.
(E) This choice correctly uses “the operating physician” as the subject of the
sentence, resolving the modifier issue. However, the pronouns “he or
she” incorrectly refer to “the operating physician,” suggesting that it is the
physician, rather than the patient, who must be made fully aware of the pros
and cons of undergoing the surgical procedure.

10. In the original sentence, the modifier “whose eyes and noses are peaking out…”
incorrectly refers to “shallows.” When used to introduce a noun modifier, “whose”
always refers to the immediately preceding noun. Inthis case, the author intends to
refer to the “crocodiles,” not the “shallows.”
(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) The modifier “whose eyes and noses peak out…” incorrectly refers to “shallows.”
When used to introduce a noun modifier, “whose” always refers to the immediately
preceding noun. In this case, the author intends torefer to the “crocodiles,” not the
“shallows.” Further, the past tense “encountered” is inconsistent with the present
tense “participate.” When there is no compelling reason to change tenses,
consistency is preferred. Also, the past tense “encountered” seems to imply that
these encounters have already happened. However, itis clear from the original
sentence that the encounters are ongoing occurrences for “vacationers who
participate in guided boat tours.”
(C) The modifier “whose eyes and noses peak out…” incorrectly refers to “shallows.”
When used to introduce a noun modifier, “whose” always refers to the immediately
preceding noun. In this case, the author intends torefer to the “crocodiles,” not the
“shallows.” Further, the past perfect “had encountered” is used incorrectly. The past
perfect tense should only be used to specify the first of two past events. Here, there
are no past events.
(D) CORRECT.The adverbial modifier “with eyes and noses peaking out” correctly
modifies the verb "lurking." As this example shows, adverbial modifiers do not
need to be placed adjacent to the verbs they modify.Further, the present tense
“encounter” is consistent with the present tense “participate.”
(E) While the adverbial modifier “with eyes and noses that are peaking out” correctly
modifies the verb "lurking," this phrasing is unnecessarily wordy. The more concise
“with eyes and noses peaking out” is preferred.

11. The original sentence begins with a modifier ("Before its independence") that clearly
describes India, though the subject of the main clause is Britain. Moreover, "ruled
India as a colony" is wordy and the verb "ruled" isin the simple past when it would be
better in the past perfect (two past actions, one of which was earlier). Finally, "they"
has no grammatical antecedent and "would" is not a proper tense here (the simple
past is required).
(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) Britain should not be the recipient of the modifier "Before its independence."
(C) The pronoun "they" has no logical antecedent. Logically it probably refers to the
British, but the British do not appear in the sentence. Also the past perfect tense
would have been preferable here (had been ruled) since the ruling occurred before
the relinquishing of the power.
(D) The phrase "ruled as a colony by Britain" is awkward and unclear. The placement
of the modifer "by Britain" makes it unclear that the ruling is being done by Britain.
(E) CORRECT.This correctly places India as the recipient of the opening modifier.
The past perfect is utilized to indicate that different times in the past. Notice that the
word "ruled" has been removed from this answer choice, however, this did not result
in a change of meaning. To be a colony of the British is to be ruled by the British.
The exclusion of the pronoun its in the beginning of the sentence (see answer
choices A and C) is incidental. The sentence wouldhave been correct with the
pronoun its as well.

12. The original sentence uses the introductory adjective modifier “used until the end of
the Second World War”; The U-boat, the subject of the modifier, should immediately
follow the modifying phrase. Additionally, the expression “both military or civilian” is
unidiomatic; the correct idiom is “both military and civilian.”
(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) CORRECT. The noun “U-boat” properly functions as the subject of the modifying
phrase. Additionally, the idiomatic “both military and civilian” is properly used at the
end of the sentence.
(C) This choice changes the intended meaning of theoriginal sentence to one that is
nonsensical. The U-boat, a boat, cannot “employ theGerman army” to do anything.
Furthermore, the “both military or civilian” construction is unidiomatic.
(D) This choice incorrectly uses “the German army” as the subject of the introductory
phrase. Additionally, this choice creates a verb tense error by unnecessarily switching
to the past perfect “had employed” and a parallelism error by using the “both military
and the civilian” construction.
(E) This choice uses the present perfect tense “hasbeen employed,” incorrectly
indicating that U-boats are still used by the German army. Furthermore, the “both
military and also civilian” is unidiomatic.

13. The original sentence begins with an opening modifier that correctly modifies the
nationwide admission of students.
(A) CORRECT.This choice is correct as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) The use of the initial modifier in this choice is correct. However, the adjective
“nationwide” is incorrectly applied to students, when it is meant to apply to the
admission process.
(C) Here, the modifier is adjacent to the subject “colleges and universities,” incorrectly
suggesting that colleges and universities are takenfor granted as opposed to the
admission process.
(D) This sentence incorrectly uses the pronoun “them” to refer to the “admission”
which is a singular subject. The use of the pronoun“their” is also unclear as the
antecedent could be construed to be “colleges and universities” as opposed to the
intended antecedent, "students."
(E) Using the word "and" at the end of the underline makes the meaning of this
sentence less clear by failing to draw an appropriate contrast between the current
state of taking the nationwide admission of students for granted and the fact that it is
a relatively recent phenomenon. A more appropriateword choice would be "but":
"Most people now take for granted..., butit is a relatively recent phenomenon."

14. The original sentence is correct. "Famous because of 'The Godfather'"and "near to
those he most trusted" correctly modify "a town," which modifies Corleone. Noun
modifiers must be next to the nouns that they describe. This choice contains no other
errors.
(A) CORRECT. This answer choice is correct as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) This choice contains a modification error; "famous because of 'The Godfather'”
incorrectly describes the prosecutor. Noun modifiers modify the closest available
noun.
(C) This choice contains a modification error; "famous because of 'The Godfather'"
incorrectly describes the mobster. Noun modifiers modify the closest available noun.
(D) This choice contains a modification error; "near to those he most trusted"
incorrectly describes the prosecutor. Noun modifiers modify the closest available
noun.
(E) The modification is correct in this choice. "Famous because of 'The Godfather'"
correctly modifies "Corleone". However, this sentence is unnecessarily wordy, "was
the town that the ailing mobster came to take refuge in" is much less concise than
"the ailing mobster came to take refuge in Corleone" without making the meaning
clearer.

15. The original sentence is correct. The modifiers “Herman Melville” and “Walt Whitman”
are restrictive – they are necessary to restrict the scope of the words “author” and
“poet” respectively – and hence the use of comma pairs to set off the modifiers is not
appropriate here. In addition, the context of the sentence implies that the men
continue to be icons of American literature since they are beloved by generations
both past and present; hence the use of the presenttense “are” is appropriate.
(A) CORRECT.The original sentence is correct as written.
(B) The modifiers “the author” and “the poet” for “Herman Melville” and “Walt
Whitman” respectively are non-restrictive – they are not necessary to identify the
subjects and only serve to add information – and hence should be set off with comma
pairs (e.g., “Herman Melville, the author, and WaltWhitman, the poet, ….”
(C) The phrases “The author named Herman Melville” and “the poet named Walt
Whitman” are unnecessarily wordy. In addition, an icon of something has implied
greatness; hence, the phrase “great icon” is redundant.
(D) The restrictive modifiers “Herman Melville” and“Walt Whitman” are improperly set
off by comma pairs.
(E). The modifiers “the author” and “the poet” are non-restrictive and properly set off
with comma pairs. The tense of the verb “had been” is not appropriate since it is
implied by the context of this sentence that the men continue to be icons of American
literature.

16. This sentence tests two modifiers. First, "only" correctly modifies "when"
Rousseau believed "man is good." Second, "that" isincorrectly used to introduce
a non-essential modifier. "That" is used only withessential modifiers and is not
separated from the rest of the sentence by a comma."Which" is used when
introducing non-essential modifiers and these modifiers are separated from the
rest of the sentence by a comma.
•(A) The sentence is incorrect because it repeats the original answer.
•(B) The new placement of the adverb "only" unacceptably changes the
meaning of the sentence. The original sentence indicated the "only"
circumstance in which "man is good." This answer choice, however, indicates
that man is the "only" good creature in a certain circumstance. In addition,
"that" should only be used to introduce essential modifiers that are not
separated from the rest of the sentence by a comma."Which" is required in
this case.
•(C) The new placement of the adverb "only" unacceptably changes the
meaning of the sentence. The original sentence indicated the "only"
circumstance in which "man is good." This answer choice, however, indicates
the "only" circumstance in which "man is corrupted." In addition, "that" should
only be used to introduce essential modifiers that are not separated from the
rest of the sentence by a comma. "Which" is required in this case.
•(D) This answer corrects the second modifier by changing "that" to "which," the
appropriate start to a non-essential modifier. However, the new placement of
the adverb "only" unacceptably changes the meaning of the sentence. The
original sentence indicated the "only" circumstancein which "man is good."
This answer choice, however, indicates that man is the "only" good creature in
a certain circumstance.
• (E) CORRECT.This choice keeps the original (and correct) placement of the
adverb "only" and also corrects the "that vs. which" modifier mistake by
replacing "that" with "which," the appropriate relative pronoun to employ to
start a non-essential modifier.

17. The opening clause "though the language of Beowulf is practically
incomprehensible to contemporary readers," correctly modifies the main clause
"careful linguistic analysis reveals a multitude ofsimilarities to modern
English." Moreover, all verbs are in the correct tenses and all nouns are properly
modified. There are no errors in the original sentence.
• (A) CORRECT.This choice is correct as it repeats the original sentence.
•(B) This choice begins with the unidiomatic "despite that it."
• "Despite" must be followed by either a noun ("despite extreme
hunger...") or a verb ("despite having been fired..."). It cannot be followed
by a relative pronoun ("despite that...").
•Moreover, the opening clause seems to modify "careful linguistic analysis,"
which is the subject of the main clause, creating an illogical meaning (that the
analysis is incomprehensible to contemporary readers).
•(C) "Though being practically incomprehensible" iswordy; "being" is
unnecessary here. Moreover, the main clause seems to imply that "the
language of Beowulf" performed the "careful linguistic analysis," thuscreating
an illogical meaning.
•(D) "Though Beowulf has a language that is practically incomprehensible" is
wordy. The original "though the language of Beowulfis practically
incomprehensible" is more concise. Moreover, "a multitude of similarities are
revealed to modern English" seems to imply that the"similarities" were
revealed to "modern English" when the correct meaning is that that "similarities
to modern English" were revealed.
•(E) "Beowulf reveals through careful linguistic analysis" illogically implies that
Beowulf carried out the analysis.

18. The original sentence describes fusion as a "process" studied by scientists. The
underlined portion of the sentence correctly ends with the word "scientists." This is
necessary because the non-underlined portion of thesentence, beginning "some
of whom . . .," is a long modifier that describes what some of those scientists have
attempted to do. Modifiers describing nouns must beadjacent to the nouns that
they describe.
• (A) CORRECT.This choice is correct as it repeats the original sentence.
•(B) This choice incorrectly shortens the modifier that describes fusion to "the
heat and light produced by the sun." This distorts the meaning of the sentence
by incorrectly stating that fusion is the "heat andlight" produced by the sun. In
fact, fusion is the "process" used by the sun to produce heat and light; fusion is
not the "heat and light" itself. This is made clearby the use of the word
"process" in the non-underlined portion of the sentence in the phrase "to mimic
the process in their laboratories."
•(C) This choice describes fusion as "the process through which heat and light
are produced by the sun." The use of the doubly passive construction "through
which . . . are produced by" produces an unnecessarily wordy modifier.
Though a passive construction may be correct, a more active construction is
preferable if it is provided.
•(D) In moving the word "scientists" from the end of the opening clause to the
beginning, this choice creates a misplaced modifier. The non-underlined
portion of the sentence that begins "some of whom .. ." is a modifier
describing the scientists; this modifier must be placed immediately adjacent to
the noun that it modifies ("scientists"). However, in this choice this modifier is
incorrectly placed adjacent to "heat and light."
•(E) The last word of this choice, "and," creates two independent clauses:
"Scientists have studied fusion . . ." and "some ofwhom have attempted . . ."
The phrase "some of whom" can only be used if it isplaced immediately
adjacent to its antecedent ("scientists."). A better choice would have been
"some of them" since the pronoun "them" (unlike "whom") does not need to be
placed immediately adjacent to its antecedent ("Scientists have studied . . .
and some of them have attempted . . .").

19. This sentence has poor parallelism, due to the placement of the word “crops.” It
seems to indicate that there were three types of crops (grape, celery and chili pepper)
that had been destroyed, but that sugar beet and walnut had been destroyed entirely,
rather than just the crops of those plants.
•Pests had destroyed grape, celery, chili pepper crops, sugar beet and walnut
in the region, but in the 1880s, more effective pest-control methods saved the
citrus industry.
(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence. OK.
•Pests had destroyed grape, celery, chili pepper, sugar beet and walnut crops
in the region, but in the 1880s, more effective pest-control methods saved the
citrus industry.
• (B) CORRECT.The word “crop” is placed correctly after the listof crop types.
The modifier “in the 1880s” correctly modifies the last phrase in the sentence,
indicating only that the citrus industry was saved in the 1880s. By using the
past perfect “had destroyed,” this sentence indicates that the other crops had
been destroyed at some time prior to the 1880s. Thelater past event uses the
simple past tense, whereas the earlier past event uses the past perfect tense.
This time line of events matches the meaning in theoriginal sentence.
•Pests had destroyed grape, celery, chili pepper, sugar beet and walnut crops
in the region, but more effective pest-control methods thatwere introduced in
the 1880s saved the citrus industry.
• The citrus industry was saved in the 1880s. As per the sentence above,
we know that the methods were introduced in the 1880’s but have no idea
when the citrus industry was saved.
•(C) The modifying phrase “that were introduced in the 1880s” refers to the
“methods” immediately preceding the phrase. This alters the meaning of the
sentence, since “in the 1880s” no longer modifies “saved the citrus industry.
The simple past tense indicates “saved” happened sometime in the past, but
not necessarily in that particular decade.
The modifier uses the relative pronoun “that,” but “that” should only
introduce essential modifiers. “Which” is a better choice here, since the
modifying phrase is non-essential.
•In the 1880s, pests destroyed grape, celery, chilipepper, sugar beet and
walnut crops in the region andmore effective pest-control methods saved the
citrus industry.
•(D) The placement of the modifier “In the 1880s” and the use of two simple
past verbs “destroyed” and “saved,” indicate that both occurred in that decade.
The original sentence indicates only that the citrus industry was saved in the
1880s, and by using the past perfect “had destroyed” indicates that the other
crops had been destroyed at some time prior to the 1880s. The original
sentence used the word “but” to indicate a contrast, yet this sentence alters the
meaning by using “and” instead.
•In the 1880s, more effective pest-control methods saved the citrus industry
from what was destroying grape, celery, chili pepper, sugar beet and walnut
crops in the region.
•(E) The use of the phrase “what was destroying” isan awkward way to refer to
“pests.” Also, the placement of the modifier “In the 1880s” and the use of the
past progressive “was destroying” indicates that the destruction was ongoing in
that decade. The original sentence indicates only that the citrus industry was
saved in the 1880s, and by using the past perfect “had destroyed” indicates
that the other crops had been destroyed at some time prior to the 1880s.

20. In the original sentence, "was" does not need to berepeated after "nor." Moreover,
"having been won over..." incorrectly modifies "classical guitar" (the subject of the
preceding clause) instead of Segovia.
•(A) This choice is the same as the original sentence.
•(B) This choice does not correct the modifier issue.
• (C) CORRECT.This choice corrects the "nor" issue as well as the modifier
issue. Now it is clear that it was Segovia who was won over by the
instrument's sound.
•(D) This choice is incorrect because the phrase "classical guitar did not have
prestige nor was it performed..." is both unidiomatic ("not ... nor" is incorrect)
and unparallel ("did not have....nor was it performed").
•(E) This choice is incorrect because it repeats "was" after "nor" and because it
implies that Segovia was won over by the sound of the instrument in the mid-twentieth century, while the original sentence makes clear that this happened
at some earlier point.

21. The original sentence suggests that Feynman’s introduction covered "physics
designed for undergraduate students." This is nonsensical; rather the courseis
designed for undergraduate students and covers the general topic of physics.
(A) This choice is incorrect as it repeats the original sentence.
(B) Beginning the sentence with “for undergraduate students” is awkward and
unclear. The verb phrase “being a comprehensive introduction…” following the
comma seems illogically to modify “the physicist Richard Feynman.” With the use
of the unnecessary “being,” this creates the awkward suggestion that “the
physicist” was “a comprehensive introduction.” (Remember that "being" is almost
always wrong on the GMAT.)
(C) The sentence’s meaning is unclear due to the use of many prepositional
phrases with no punctuation: “In a two-year course”followed by “by the physicist
Richard Feynman” and later, “to undergraduate students” and “to modern
physics.” Also, the subject of this passive sentence is “a comprehensive
introduction.” It would make more sense for Feynmanto be the subject, since he
was actively doing something: “presenting.” Finally, the use of "presenting" with
the passive construction introduces a verb tense error; Feynman is not currently
"presenting" the course, rather, the course was presented by Feynman.
(D) The use of both “introduction” and “introduced”is redundant: it suggests that
Feynman “introduced a comprehensive introduction.”
(E) CORRECT.The placement of the prepositional phrase “in a two-year course
designed for undergraduate students” at the beginning of the sentence clarifies
the meaning: a physics course was designed for the students. The construction of
the rest of the sentence is straightforward: the subject (the person doing the
action) “the physicist Richard Feynman,” the verb (what he actually did)
“presented,” and the object (what he presented) “a comprehensive introduction to
modern physics.”

22. The original sentence begins with a misplaced modifier. It is the domestic cat that
descended from the wildcat. We need to find a choice that expresses this
correctly.
•(A) This choice is the same as the original sentence.
•(B) The original modifier issue has been corrected. However, the phrase
"which is an exceedingly short time" has no referent ("4,000 years ago" is not a
time span but a specific moment).
•(C) The original modifier issue has been corrected. However, the phrase "has
been scarcely sufficient..." incorrectly refers to the domestic cat.
•(D) The original modifier issue has been corrected. However, the phrase "that
has scarcely been sufficient..." incorrectly modifies "genetic evolution". Also
"the marked physical changes that transformed the animal" is redundant.
Compare to E: "the marked physical changes in the animal," a much tighter
way of conveying the same information.
• (E) CORRECT.This choice correctly rearranges the opening modifier to place
the words "the domestic cat" immediately next to the modifier "descended from
the African wildcat."

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Re: GMATCLUB VERBAL ATTACK  [#permalink]

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New post 25 Oct 2012, 23:09
souvik101990 wrote:
Jp27 wrote:
Hi Souvik - Do you have any set that comprises of Number and percentage CR? I guess they appear more often in all types of question. Any such set will be of great help......

Eagerly awaiting for your response....


Here you go
Critical Reasoning Problems: Numbers and Statistics (the Overlap between verbal and quantitative reasoning)
Critical Reasoning: Problems with Numbers and Statistics (part 2)

Also you can check this thursdays-with-ron-critical-reasoning-series-critical-140883.html

Souvik



hello Souvik - thanks for your response.
I have seen these videos but do you have any collection of questions that we can practice to enhance our understanding?

Cheers
GMAT Club Bot
Re: GMATCLUB VERBAL ATTACK &nbs [#permalink] 25 Oct 2012, 23:09

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