HarveyKlaus wrote:
If \(\vert x\vert = \vert y\vert\), is \(\frac{x}{y} = -1\)?
My method is a little verbose to write out. Could definitely be explained more succinctly as it's trivial to see.
\(\textbf{1) } x<0\)
\(y = \pm x\)
As x is negative,
if \(y = x\), then \(\frac{x}{y} = 1\)
if \(y = -x\), then \(\frac{x}{y} = -1\)
Not Sufficient\(\textbf{2) } y>0\)
\(x = \pm y\)
As y is positive,
if \(x = y\), then \(\frac{x}{y} = 1\)
if \(x = -y\), then \(\frac{x}{y} = -1\)
Not Sufficient\(\textbf{(1 + 2)}\)
\(y = \pm n\)
\(x = \pm n\)
We know from (1) that x = -n.
We know from (2) that y = n
\(\frac{x}{y} = \frac{-n}{n} = \frac{-1}{1} = -1\)
Sufficient(C) both statements taken together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient
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