Kratosgmat wrote:
Please let me know your thought process to eliminate option D in this question. Also, kindly provide some references for similar official questions in case you have them handy (related to correlation and causation)
The argument concludes that "the law will soon entirely cease to serve its intended purpose." Why? Because an increasing number of banks are not physically located in any specific community. As a result, the law which requires banks to invest in their local community may not apply to them. According to the argument, this will "entirely" prevent the law from serving its purpose of revitalizing "impoverished local communities."
Let's now consider (D):
Quote:
The banker's argument is most vulnerable to criticism on which of the following grounds?
D. It overlooks the possibility that even if there is a strong correlation between two phenomena, neither of those phenomena are necessarily causally responsible for the other.
Does the argument make this particular error? To determine this, let's see how the answer choice might map to the argument.
In theory, what correlation might (D) be referring to? It's hard to say. The argument suggests that a trend (the increasing number of online-only banks) will have a certain effect (the law will "entirely" cease to serve its purpose). But that isn't a correlation so much as a proposed cause-and-effect.
Going through the rest of the argument, it's hard to find any correlation discussed. In theory, a correlation would be an
observation that a certain phenomenon tends to occur along with another phenomenon. For instance, you might cite data that people who eat ice cream are on average better at surfing than people who don't. Could we conclude from this that ice cream
causes people to be better at surfing? Definitely not. It might be that people who live near the ocean tend to eat a lot of ice cream and be good at surfing. The two phenomena are
correlated, but one doesn't cause the other.
Going back to the argument, no observations of correlated phenomena are cited. So it's hard to see how the argument overlooks the possibility that a that correlation is not actually a causation.
For that reason, we can eliminate (D).
I hope that helps!