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Re: Due to hole at the bottom of the tank, a tap takes 2 more minutes to c [#permalink]
chetansharma wrote:
Bunuel wrote:
Due to hole at the bottom of the tank, a tap takes 2 more minutes to completely fill the tank. Due to leakage of water through this hole, a bucket filled completely with water gets emptied in 4 minutes. In how much time can the tap fill the tank, if there was no hole at the bottom at the tank?

A. 8 min

B. 6 min

C. 4 min

D. 3 min

E. 2 min


Logically the bucket should get filled in less than 4minutes, the time it takes the hole to empty the bucket, as otherwise the bucket will never get filled. Only D and E left.

Let the tap fill the bucket in a minutes and with hole, therefore, it will take a+2 minutes.
Therefore the one minute work of the hole =\(\frac{1}{a}-\frac{1}{a+2}=\frac{2}{a(a+2)}\).
But it is given that the bucket empties in 4 minutes, so one minut work of hole =1/4

\(\frac{2}{a^2+2a}=\frac{1}{4}\)
\(a^2+2a=4...........a^2+2a-8=0\)
\((a+4)(a-2)=0\)
Thus a can be -4 or 2. But time cannot be negative, so time taken is 2 minutes

E

Hi Chetan, i am not able to understand how did you arrive at the equation . 1/a - 1/(a+2) = 1/4 . One thing i understood is that due to hole filling pipe will take 2 more minuets so for that you wrote 1/a+2 and if hole is not there than 1/a . But i am not able to understand how did you arrive at the equation. please explain ?
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Re: Due to hole at the bottom of the tank, a tap takes 2 more minutes to c [#permalink]
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Re: Due to hole at the bottom of the tank, a tap takes 2 more minutes to c [#permalink]
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