himanshu0123 wrote:
Hello Expert
I have following doubts:
1. '' , often ...'' is a comma+ ed verbal. As per
e-gmat it is same as , +ing verbal and thus should modify the verb which is not the case here. can , ed verbal modifies verb or it is always noun ?
2. does 'ing' or ed verbal indicates the tense? the present and past tone of the sentence can be deduced from these verbals ?
3. can a modifier modify different nouns e.g
'' More than ever before, policies, curricula, and salaries no longer following... ''
'following modifying the preceding 'salaries' or all of it before. Do we call it ambiguous or logical ?
4. Modifier 1, modifier 2, modified noun.
do we need a connector b/w mod 1 and mod 2. I guess when modifier 1 is an appositive phrase/ absolute phrase then we don't need a connector. Please confirm
Thanking you in anticipation
Hello
himanshu0123,
We hope this finds you well.
To answer your queries,
1. "often in the form of mutual funds" is not a past participle ("verb+ed") modifier; "often in the form of mutual funds" is one modifying phrase that acts on the verb phrase "create portfolios", and "intended to turn in good results..." is a separate modifier that acts upon "mutual funds".
2. Present participles ("verb+ing") do not indicate tense; the use of a present participle to modify a noun conveys that the noun took an action that is continuous in nature, but this action can be in the past, present, or future depending on the context. The past participle, which often but not always takes the form "verb+ed", does convey that the action it refers to concluded in the past.
3. Yes; one modifier can act upon all elements in a list, so long as the meaning conveyed is logical.
4. No; two noun modifiers - or adjectives - can be joined with just a comma. For example, "I live in the big, red house."
We hope this helps.
All the best!
Experts' Global Team