dabaobao
happy1992
Replete with bloody revenge, disasters (both deserved and undeserved) and agonizing moral dilemmas, the plots of tragedies also involve dramatic irony, where the audience recognizes the facts before they are recognized by the play's characters themselves.
(A) they are recognized by the play's characters themselves
(B) the play's characters recognize the facts
(C) these facts are recognized by the play's characters
(D) being recognized by the play's characters
(E) the play's characters themselves do
GMATNinja daagh egmat EducationAisle I would really appreciate if someone could help me clear my doubt regarding ellipsis. Thanks!
I understand why E is superior to all other choices but I ruled it out due to one issue: ellipsis.
The audience recognizes the facts before the play's characters themselves do
(recognize) "recognize" is missing since "recognizes" != "recognize". I know that there's a rule that all words in ellipsis should be present somewhere else in the sentence. How can we get away without the exact verb present somewhere else? In contrast, for example (Ellipsis with sentences without DO), in this Q:
https://gmatclub.com/forum/inflation-ha ... ml?kudos=1, we do need the exact verb tense.
Wrong: They still expect to live better than their parents have (Missing: "lived". Need "did (live)" instead of "have")
Another example (Ellipsis with sentences with DO):
Wrong: She went to school before all children do (Missing: "go".
Need "did (go)" instead of "do" but no "go"????) dabaobao , I will let the experts you have tagged reply about this question.
But you are a little mixed up about my post that you cite.
It's easy to get mixed up about ellipsis and substitution.
When verbs shift tenses in a sentence, we have two choices.
We can write out both verbs in their entirety, this way:
Marisol works harder in college than Reva worked when Reva was in college.Or we can use the appropriate form of
to do because that verb can stand in for almost any verb. (Exceptions are below.)
We write the "to do" substitute verb in the tense that we need.
Marisol works harder in college than Reva did.DID = WORKED
Don't test correctness by seeing whether you can write
did (works).
Just ask whether
did equals
worked. Are both verbs past tense so that they refer properly to Reva, who is finished with college?
Yes,
did and
worked are both past tense.
The one verb that you
can use when verb tenses shift is some form of TO DO (do, does, or did, usually).
When we use
do, does, and
did, we
do not need exactly the same verb tense.
This situation is precisely the one in which we use
do, does, or
did.The
only verb that will work to express a verb shift is some form of TO DO.
Quote:
I know that there's a rule that all words in ellipsis should be present somewhere else in the sentence.
The verb tense needs to be present, yes, if we want to use pure omission (ellipsis).
If the second verb tense is not present, we either write out both verbs entirely or, using substitution, we write the "to do" verb that matches the tense we need.
IF we need a present tense verb (for the verb whose tense has shifted), then we use DO and DOES.
If we need a past tense verb (for the verb whose tense has shifted), then we use DID.
You seem confused about this part of the post:
Quote:
When verbs shift [tense] in a sentence,
only some form of "to do" (almost always do, does, or did)
will allow us to imply the verb in a tense that is different from the one explicitly mentioned.
DO stands in for a present tense verb.
DOES stands in for a present tense verb.
DID stands in for a past tense verb.
You wrote:
Quote:
Wrong: They still expect to live better than their parents have (Missing: "lived". Need "did
(live)" instead of "have")
Not quite. Yes, "lived" is "missing."
Yes, we use
did to stand in for
lived because both
did and
lived are past tense verbs.We are not writing
did in order to say "did live."
We are writing
did in order to say "lived."
We are allowed to use
did when the verb changes tenses and we do not want to write the whole verb out again.
Did is past tense.
You wrote
Quote:
Wrong: She went to school before all children do (Missing: "go".
Need "did (go)" instead of "do" but no "go"????)↓↓↓
Correct: She went to school before all the other children DID.
Correct: She went to school before all the other children went to school.
DID = WENT TO SCHOOL
Both are past tense.
We are allowed to use
did as shorthand for "went to school."
Just as is the case in this question, there is no verb tense shift in this example.
That fact is okay; we can still see how a "to do" verb stands in and makes a "short" version of the verb phrase "went to school."
We can use a TO DO verb when there is
not a tense shift and we do not want to write out the second verb.
We can use a TO DO verb when there
is a tense shift and we do not want to write out the second verb.
Finally, there are
two big exceptions to the "do can stand in for almost any verb" guideline.
A TO DO verb
cannot substitute for
-- TO BE verbs, or
-- HAVE, if HAVE is an auxiliary verb.
If
have means
own, possess, or
experience, then
have is a "main" verb and can be replaced with
do, does, or
did.• TO DO verbs cannot substitute for TO BE verbs
Wrong: She was hungry and he did, too.
Correct: She was hungry and he was [hungry], too.
• TO DO verbs cannot substitute for HAVE when HAVE is a helping/auxiliary verb
Wrong: He had finished his wine and I did, too.
Correct: He had finished his wine and I had, too.
• TO DO verbs
can substitute for HAVE when HAVE is a main verb that means own, possess, or experience.
Correct: Artem has ten pennies and Misha has ten pennies.
Correct: Artem has ten pennies and Misha does, too.
Correct: Artem has ten pennies just as Misha does.
does = has [ten pennies]
Correct (did can substitute for main verb had):
Artem had ten pennies and Misha had ten pennies.
Artem had ten pennies and Misha did, too.
Artem had ten pennies just as Misha did.
did = had [ten pennies]
I've added these exceptions to the post you cited.
I'll let the other experts you tagged take on this question.