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Re: There is substantial evidence that by 1926, with the publication of [#permalink]
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GDT wrote:
MentorTutoring

In Q2, I narrowed down to B & C . Can you pls give a better reason for eliminating C

Thanks in advance!

Sure thing, GDT. This was another passage I jumped into, but detail questions are just my thing, and I answered correctly in 1:09. Remember that in highlight or boldface questions, you always want to read the part in question within the context of the surrounding sentences to see how it fits in. Here, the passage points straight to (B):

Most of his folk poems have the distinctive marks of this folk culture’s oral tradition: they contain many instances of naming and enumeration, considerable hyperbole and understatement, and a strong infusion of street-talk rhyming. There is a deceptive veil of artlessness in these poems. Hughes prided himself on being an impromptu and impressionistic writer of poetry. His, he insisted, was not an artfully constructed poetry. Yet an analysis of his dramatic monologues and other poems reveals that his poetry was carefully and artfully crafted.

The first sentence simply lists features of Hughes's work that bear the distinctive marks of this folk culture's oral tradition. The "deceptive veil" is then mentioned with the prepositional phrase of artlessness right after it, so we understand that such apparent artlessness was not, in fact, artless. The lines that follow deliver upon this statement: although Hughes was an impromptu and impressionistic writer of poetry, and he insisted that his was not an artfully constructed poetry, the author of the passage disagrees. You can tell this as soon as you reach the yet of the final line I have included above from the passage, but the end of the line spells it out: his poetry was carefully and artfully crafted.

Looking at choice (C), notice the overstatement in his scrupulous concern. Where does the passage discuss Hughes going to painstaking ends to include the features mentioned in the line before the highlighted text? These were common features, distinctive marks, of African American art, and we do not get any insight into the mindset of Hughes in incorporating them. We do, however, see how the last line of the passage I have quoted above fits perfectly with choice (B). Compare:

Passage: his poetry was carefully and artfully crafted
Answer: his thoughtful deliberation in composing his poems

You cannot argue that Hughes did not carefully work on his poems, and the deceptive veil of artlessness has been dropped. When in doubt, look for stronger language versus more cautious language. Typically, the bolder language is easier to argue against, as was the case here.

I hope that helps. I have to run to get to a tutoring lesson!

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Re: There is substantial evidence that by 1926, with the publication of [#permalink]
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Hello, imSKR. My in-line responses are below.

imSKR wrote:
Quote:
4. The author most probably mentions the reactions of northern White writers to non-Europeanized “sorrow songs” in order to


Meaning clarification w.r.t. 4th question

Quote:
1. It might be pointed out that even the spirituals or “sorrow songs” of the slaves—as distinct from their secular songs and stories—had been Europeanized to make them acceptable within these African American traditions after the Civil War.

Sorrow songs HAD BEEN Europeanized ,

Yes, the author is positing that even songs that had sprung from slave spirituals had been Europeanized after the Civil War. For reference, the American Civil War ended in 1865.

imSKR wrote:
Quote:
In 1862 northern White writers had commented favorably on the unique and provocative melodies of these “sorrow songs” when they first heard them sung by slaves in the Carolina sea islands.

Question1: northern White writers HAD COMMENTED. These white writers commented original songs or Europeanized song?
If the songs were sung by slaves in front of whites, then they should have used Europeanized songs, is n’t it?

In 1862, the Civil War was still in full swing. Based on the earlier line above, we cannot comment on whether or to what extent "sorrow songs" may have been Europeanized at that time. The passage seems to suggest that these earlier songs were truer representations of the form, given the contrast that is set up with but by 1916... every spiritual [had been] arranged so that a concert singer could sing it "in the manner of an art song." But again, we have no textual evidence to indicate whether the 1862 songs were unadulterated.

imSKR wrote:
Quote:
(B) contrast White writers earlier appreciation of these songs with the growing tendency after the Civil War to regard Europeanized versions of the songs as more acceptable
(C) show that the requirement that such songs be Europeanized was internal to the African American tradition and was unrelated to the literary standards or attitudes of White writers

Question2: What is wrong in C: because of first part? : Requirements was not internal to tradition but was imposed ?
2nd part : was unrelated to the literary standards or attitudes of White writers should be ok, right?
These requirements were related to African American art but not as such as white writers

please confirm AndrewN GMATNinja

What I have written above maps well onto (B). With (C), we encounter quite strong language as early as the first word, show. Does the author mention the reactions in question to show or prove something? That seems like the wrong angle to take. The word requirement is equally strong, but the last line of the first paragraph justifies its use: only on the condition that fits the bill of a requirement. So far, I would not dismiss (C). But then we get to the statement, that such songs be Europeanized was internal to the African American tradition. This is incorrect. Why would African Americans Europeanize their spirituals at all if not for outside pressure? The same line we looked at before speaks to the point: even the spirituals or "sorrow songs" of the slaves... had been Europeanized to make them acceptable within these African American traditions after the Civil War. You have to ask yourself, acceptable to whom? Slaves were singing the songs on their own, so it seems reasonable to believe that the songs were perfectly acceptable to the singers' ears. Then, after the Civil War, former slaves altered their songs to make them more acceptable within European norms.

I hope that helps. Remember to choose the answer that is hardest to argue against. Strong language typically is more debatable than softer language, and sometimes details make answer choices easier to debate, as was the case with (C).

- Andrew
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Re: There is substantial evidence that by 1926, with the publication of [#permalink]
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GMATNinja, Gnpth could you please clarify for q5 what is the relevant statement to indicate that The requirement that Black writers employ Western European literary techniques was imposed more for social than for aesthetic reasons?
I solved this question by process of elimination, and got it wright. However, I was not comfortable selecting A because I could not see relevant details in the passage.
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Re: There is substantial evidence that by 1926, with the publication of [#permalink]
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Bobsled wrote:
Hi Sajjad1994 ,
I found this passage quite easy, can you tell me the difficulty level of the individual questions? I want to know where my preparation stands.
Thank you


1. Medium
2. Medium
3. Medium
4. Hard
5. Medium
6. Hard

Overall: Medium
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Re: There is substantial evidence that by 1926, with the publication of [#permalink]
MentorTutoring

In Q2, I narrowed down to B & C . Can you pls give a better reason for eliminating C

Thanks in advance!
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Re: There is substantial evidence that by 1926, with the publication of [#permalink]
Quote:
4. The author most probably mentions the reactions of northern White writers to non-Europeanized “sorrow songs” in order to


Meaning clarification w.r.t. 4th question

Quote:
1. It might be pointed out that even the spirituals or “sorrow songs” of the slaves—as distinct from their secular songs and stories—had been Europeanized to make them acceptable within these African American traditions after the Civil War.

Sorrow songs HAD BEEN Europeanized ,

Quote:
In 1862 northern White writers had commented favorably on the unique and provocative melodies of these “sorrow songs” when they first heard them sung by slaves in the Carolina sea islands.

Question1: northern White writers HAD COMMENTED. These white writers commented original songs or Europeanized song?
If the songs were sung by slaves in front of whites, then they should have used Europeanized songs, is n’t it?



Quote:
(B) contrast White writers earlier appreciation of these songs with the growing tendency after the Civil War to regard Europeanized versions of the songs as more acceptable
(C) show that the requirement that such songs be Europeanized was internal to the African American tradition and was unrelated to the literary standards or attitudes of White writers

Question2: What is wrong in C: because of first part? : Requirements was not internal to tradition but was imposed ?
2nd part : was unrelated to the literary standards or attitudes of White writers should be ok, right?
These requirements were related to African American art but not as such as white writers

please confirm AndrewN GMATNinja
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Re: There is substantial evidence that by 1926, with the publication of [#permalink]
Hi Sajjad1994 ,
I found this passage quite easy, can you tell me the difficulty level of the individual questions? I want to know where my preparation stands.
Thank you
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Re: There is substantial evidence that by 1926, with the publication of [#permalink]
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