VeritasPrepKarishma wrote:
feruz77 wrote:
A dealer offers a cash discount of 20% and still makes a profit of 20% when he further allows 16 articles to be sold at the cost price of 12 articles to a particular sticky bargainer. How much percent above the cost price were his articles listed?
a) 100%
b) 80%
c) 75%
d) 66+2/3%
e) 55%
I have explained the Mark up - Discount - Profit relation here:
https://gmatclub.com/forum/discount-problem-104001.html#p810682This gives us the formula (1 + m/100)(1 - d/100) = (1 + p/100)
(1 + m/100)(1 - 20/100) = (1 + 20/100)
m = 50
So mark up was 50% in a situation where 12 articles were sold and charged for. i.e. effective mark up turned out to be 50% though his actual mark up was higher since he gave away 16 articles for the cost of 12.
Lets say the cost price of each of the 16 articles was $1. Then total cost price was $16 and effective markup was 50% higher on $16 i.e. 16 + 8 = $24. So he charged $24 from the customer. This must have been the marked price on 12 articles. So each article must have a marked price of $2 i.e. a mark up of 100%
It is definitely a tricky question. If any parts of the solution are unclear, ask.
Hi Karishma,
I got this far:
VeritasPrepKarishma wrote:
This gives us the formula (1 + m/100)(1 - d/100) = (1 + p/100)
(1 + m/100)(1 - 20/100) = (1 + 20/100)
Since he gave away 16 for the price of 12, I multiplied the left side by 3/4 and got the right result.
My question is how you proceeded from that part:
VeritasPrepKarishma wrote:
Lets say the cost price of each of the 16 articles was $1. Then total cost price was $16 and effective markup was 50% higher on $16 i.e. 16 + 8 = $24. So he charged $24 from the customer. This must have been the marked price on 12 articles. So each article must have a marked price of $2 i.e. a mark up of 100%
Once you got the 24$, why did you calculate how much of a markup it was on the 12 items? I didn't get the transition between the 12 and 16.
Can you help with that?