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Re: V10-12 [#permalink]
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manlog wrote:
bb, the passage gives information that the population declined, but in the explanation of the correct answer choice A and other choices, you say that "the size of the labor force has decreased.", which requires additional assumption, that "population decline = labour force decline".


Please refer to the slight change in wording in the first sentence of the passage.
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Re: V10-12 [#permalink]
Great question, thank you!

I'm unsure if I get it right: "There have been no technological developments that would increase the productivity of the labor force" doesn't this damage the whole argument? because if there was no increase in productivity, how then would GDP remained the same?

thank you
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Re: V10-12 [#permalink]
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SeregaP wrote:
Great question, thank you!

I'm unsure if I get it right: "There have been no technological developments that would increase the productivity of the labor force" doesn't this damage the whole argument? because if there was no increase in productivity, how then would GDP remained the same?

thank you


Yes your understanding is correct - consider this way:

GDP ∝ Population x Productivity

If GDP is to remain same while population goes down, the productivity must go up.
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Re: V10-12 [#permalink]
sayantanc2k wrote:
SeregaP wrote:
Great question, thank you!

I'm unsure if I get it right: "There have been no technological developments that would increase the productivity of the labor force" doesn't this damage the whole argument? because if there was no increase in productivity, how then would GDP remained the same?

thank you


Yes your understanding is correct - consider this way:

GDP ∝ Population x Productivity

If GDP is to remain same while population goes down, the productivity must go up.


Hi, Sayantanc2k

I am not sure I am understanding the explanation correctly. Could you please point to my misunderstanding?

If GDP = Labor*Productivity then, if Labor force has declined, the only possible explanation for GDP not declining is Productivity increasing. Alternatively, if there has been no productivity increase due to technological advances, then the GDP should be declining and resultantly since it "Has remained steady", this point WEAKENS the argument.
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Re V10-12 [#permalink]
I think this is a high-quality question and I don't agree with the explanation. If there "Have been" no technological developments that would increase the productivity of the labor force then how will you justify the discrepancy in the question statement that the population decreased but GDP has remained steady.

Should that have been be something like "will be no more"
or "no more technological developments are expected"?
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