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While FIFA world ranking may be imperfect, it is the only

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joshnsit
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While FIFA world ranking may be imperfect, it is the only [#permalink] New post   01 Aug 2012, 14:21
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While FIFA world ranking may be imperfect, it is the only official measure of relative strength of soccer nations. However, since 1992, FIFA rankings have been a poor indicator of world cup success. In fact Germany, who was tipped to be winner in 1996 to clear even the first round.
Which option, if above statements are correct, is the correct inference here?

a) A team's performance on paper is not a guarantee of its success in field.
b) FIFA should improve the rankings to make them more useful.
c) No team which has been tipped to win the world cup by FIFA based on its rankings has actually gone to win world cup.
d) FIFA rankings would have been a better indicator of world cup success if the rankings were perfected.
e) Prior to 1992, FIFA rankings were a better indicator of the world cup success.

OA later. Need solid explanations behind the correct inference here.

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Re: While FIFA world ranking may be imperfect, it is the only [#permalink] New post   02 Aug 2012, 17:50
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I got a PM on this question. I'll definitely chime in, but let me start off by saying that this question should be done for fun. It is not an actual GMAT question in terms of style, rigor, and well...just about anything else. That does not mean we can't subject it to analysis. So here goes:

While FIFA world ranking may be imperfect, it is the only official measure of relative strength of soccer nations. However, since 1992, FIFA rankings have been a poor indicator of world cup success. In fact Germany, who was tipped to be winner in 1996 to clear even the first round.
Which option, if above statements are correct, is the correct inference here?

a) A team's performance on paper is not a guarantee of its success in field.

'On paper' seems odd. Can we assume 'on paper' is literal and that FIFA is 'on paper.' I don't know. If so, this would be valid.

b) FIFA should improve the rankings to make them more useful.

This is an opinion not an inference.

c) No team which has been tipped to win the world cup by FIFA based on its rankings has actually gone to win world cup.

The argument only says that FIFA ranking has been a 'poor indicator'.

d) FIFA rankings would have been a better indicator of world cup success if the rankings were perfected.

We can't conclude this. And what does it mean 'were perfected.'

e) Prior to 1992, FIFA rankings were a better indicator of the world cup success.

This seems very straightforward and hardly an inference, at least one you would see on the actual GMAT...but it is an inference nonetheless. It is sort of like saying John is over 5 feet tall. Therefore we can infer that he is not less than 5 ft. Also, the prompt says 'Since 1992, FIFA rankings...'. Therefore, before 1992 they were not a poor indicator. The use of the word 'since' shows that there were FIFA rankings before.

Anyhow, I guess (E) would be the answer, though one could make the argument for (A), depending on the nebulous term 'on paper.'

That said, don't worry about this question. Move on and spend your time with the official/reputable stuff. It'll help your score test day :).
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Re: While FIFA world ranking may be imperfect, it is the only [#permalink] New post   01 Aug 2012, 15:24
joshnsit wrote:
While FIFA world ranking may be imperfect, it is the only official measure of relative strength of soccer nations. However, since 1992, FIFA rankings have been a poor indicator of world cup success. In fact Germany, who was tipped to be winner in 1996 to clear even the first round.
Which option, if above statements are correct, is the correct inference here?

a) A team's performance on paper is not a guarantee of its success in field.
b) FIFA should improve the rankings to make them more useful.
c) No team which has been tipped to win the world cup by FIFA based on its rankings has actually gone to win world cup.
d) FIFA rankings would have been a better indicator of world cup success if the rankings were perfected.
e) Prior to 1992, FIFA rankings were a better indicator of the world cup success.

OA later. Need solid explanations behind the correct inference here.


I'm stuck between A & E, but My final answer is A.
B,C,D are out (B - irrelevant, C - out of scope, D -irrelevant)
E - is valid but not an inference, Whereas, A sounds much convincing.

Cheers!
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Re: While FIFA world ranking may be imperfect, it is the only [#permalink] New post   01 Aug 2012, 16:24
Capricorn369 wrote:
joshnsit wrote:
While FIFA world ranking may be imperfect, it is the only official measure of relative strength of soccer nations. However, since 1992, FIFA rankings have been a poor indicator of world cup success. In fact Germany, who was tipped to be winner in 1996 to clear even the first round.
Which option, if above statements are correct, is the correct inference here?

a) A team's performance on paper is not a guarantee of its success in field.
b) FIFA should improve the rankings to make them more useful.
c) No team which has been tipped to win the world cup by FIFA based on its rankings has actually gone to win world cup.
d) FIFA rankings would have been a better indicator of world cup success if the rankings were perfected.
e) Prior to 1992, FIFA rankings were a better indicator of the world cup success.

OA later. Need solid explanations behind the correct inference here.
I'm stuck between A & E, but My final answer is A.
B,C,D are out (B - irrelevant, C - out of scope, D -irrelevant)
E - is valid but not an inference, Whereas, A sounds much convincing.
Cheers!
How would it be E? Can't I say that FIFA rolled out it's rankings in 1992 for the first time? Also, how do you make inference about something before 1992, when nothing is talked about that time in the given argument.
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Re: While FIFA world ranking may be imperfect, it is the only [#permalink] New post   01 Aug 2012, 17:02
joshnsit wrote:
Capricorn369 wrote:
joshnsit wrote:
While FIFA world ranking may be imperfect, it is the only official measure of relative strength of soccer nations. However, since 1992, FIFA rankings have been a poor indicator of world cup success. In fact Germany, who was tipped to be winner in 1996 to clear even the first round.
Which option, if above statements are correct, is the correct inference here?

a) A team's performance on paper is not a guarantee of its success in field.
b) FIFA should improve the rankings to make them more useful.
c) No team which has been tipped to win the world cup by FIFA based on its rankings has actually gone to win world cup.
d) FIFA rankings would have been a better indicator of world cup success if the rankings were perfected.
e) Prior to 1992, FIFA rankings were a better indicator of the world cup success.

OA later. Need solid explanations behind the correct inference here.
I'm stuck between A & E, but My final answer is A.
B,C,D are out (B - irrelevant, C - out of scope, D -irrelevant)
E - is valid but not an inference, Whereas, A sounds much convincing.
Cheers!
How would it be E? Can't I say that FIFA rolled out it's rankings in 1992 for the first time? Also, how do you make inference about something before 1992, when nothing is talked about that time in the given argument.


I said, My final answer is A not E.
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Re: While FIFA world ranking may be imperfect, it is the only [#permalink] New post   01 Aug 2012, 19:01
Capricorn369 wrote:
joshnsit wrote:
Capricorn369 wrote:
I'm stuck between A & E, but My final answer is A. B,C,D are out (B - irrelevant, C - out of scope, D -irrelevant)
E - is valid but not an inference, Whereas, A sounds much convincing.
Cheers!
How would it be E? Can't I say that FIFA rolled out it's rankings in 1992 for the first time? Also, how do you make inference about something before 1992, when nothing is talked about that time in the given argument.
I said, My final answer is A not E.
Let me wear devil's advocate hat/coat, anything on "paper" practically or metaphorically is never discussed in the argument.
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Re: While FIFA world ranking may be imperfect, it is the only [#permalink] New post   01 Aug 2012, 19:56
joshnsit wrote:
While FIFA world ranking may be imperfect, it is the only official measure of relative strength of soccer nations. However, since 1992, FIFA rankings have been a poor indicator of world cup success. In fact Germany, who was tipped to be winner in 1996 to clear even the first round.
Which option, if above statements are correct, is the correct inference here?

a) A team's performance on paper is not a guarantee of its success in field.
b) FIFA should improve the rankings to make them more useful.
c) No team which has been tipped to win the world cup by FIFA based on its rankings has actually gone to win world cup.
d) FIFA rankings would have been a better indicator of world cup success if the rankings were perfected.
e) Prior to 1992, FIFA rankings were a better indicator of the world cup success.

OA later. Need solid explanations behind the correct inference here.



Tough one.

A) is not the point the team's performance

B) hold

C) maybe yes or maybe no

D) hold

E) is not completely true for the conclusion

B and D

B should improve not convince me at all. Instead D have much sense (see the red part). Inference is solely a restatement of the original stimulus.

I go for D
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Re: While FIFA world ranking may be imperfect, it is the only [#permalink] New post   01 Aug 2012, 22:59
While FIFA world ranking may be imperfect, it is the only official measure of relative strength of soccer nations. However, since 1992, FIFA rankings have been a poor indicator of world cup success. In fact Germany, who was tipped to be winner in 1996 to clear even the first round.
Which option, if above statements are correct, is the correct inference here?

The argument in one line :- Fifa rankings are the only official measure of relative strength b/w nations, however since 1992 their rankings have been poor indicators of world cup success.

So the inference should be in the lines if the rankings are improved they are better indicators of world cup success.

a) A team's performance on paper is not a guarantee of its success in field.irrelevant because thats not the argument about.
b) FIFA should improve the rankings to make them more useful.can be inferred
c) No team which has been tipped to win the world cup by FIFA based on its rankings has actually gone to win world cup. cannot be inferred
d) FIFA rankings would have been a better indicator of world cup success if the rankings were perfected.as pre-phrased
e) Prior to 1992, FIFA rankings were a better indicator of the world cup success.beyond scope

Hence IMO D whats OA?
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Re: While FIFA world ranking may be imperfect, it is the only [#permalink] New post   02 Aug 2012, 04:04
(D) sounds more like an assumption, (E) is the correct answer IMO.
Yes 1992 was not the year of incorporation and the FWR started before that other wise the author had not given stress on this part -....." However, since 1992, FIFA rankings have been a poor indicator of world cup success."
(A) is wrong because it is too generic to be an inference.
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Re: While FIFA world ranking may be imperfect, it is the only [#permalink] New post   02 Aug 2012, 06:18
E for me.
A - "Team's performance on paper" is ambiguous. FIFA ranking is the official measure of relative strength, and it does not necessarily imply "performance on paper"
D - The ranking "may" be imperfect & it has been a poor indicator of world cup success. However, this does not necessarily demonstrate that 'perfect rankings' will lead to better indication of world cup success. As thevenus points out, it brings additional assumption.

As for E - "However, since 1992, FIFA rankings have been a poor indicator..." implies that prior to 1992, FIFA rankings were a better indicator.
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Re: While FIFA world ranking may be imperfect, it is the only [#permalink] New post   03 Aug 2012, 02:06
ChrisLele wrote:
I got a PM on this question. I'll definitely chime in, but let me start off by saying that this question should be done for fun. It is not an actual GMAT question in terms of style, rigor, and well...just about anything else. That does not mean we can't subject it to analysis. So here goes:

While FIFA world ranking may be imperfect, it is the only official measure of relative strength of soccer nations. However, since 1992, FIFA rankings have been a poor indicator of world cup success. In fact Germany, who was tipped to be winner in 1996 to clear even the first round.
Which option, if above statements are correct, is the correct inference here?

a) A team's performance on paper is not a guarantee of its success in field.

'On paper' seems odd. Can we assume 'on paper' is literal and that FIFA is 'on paper.' I don't know. If so, this would be valid.

b) FIFA should improve the rankings to make them more useful.

This is an opinion not an inference.

c) No team which has been tipped to win the world cup by FIFA based on its rankings has actually gone to win world cup.

The argument only says that FIFA ranking has been a 'poor indicator'.

d) FIFA rankings would have been a better indicator of world cup success if the rankings were perfected.

We can't conclude this. And what does it mean 'were perfected.'

e) Prior to 1992, FIFA rankings were a better indicator of the world cup success.

This seems very straightforward and hardly an inference, at least one you would see on the actual GMAT...but it is an inference nonetheless. It is sort of like saying John is over 5 feet tall. Therefore we can infer that he is not less than 5 ft. Also, the prompt says 'Since 1992, FIFA rankings...'. Therefore, before 1992 they were not a poor indicator. The use of the word 'since' shows that there were FIFA rankings before.

Anyhow, I guess (E) would be the answer, though one could make the argument for (A), depending on the nebulous term 'on paper.'

That said, don't worry about this question. Move on and spend your time with the official/reputable stuff. It'll help your score test day :).


I Chris :) glad to see you on this question. What you are saying confirm why I do not spend too much on question from lsat, 1000 series and so on because do not reflect the actual gmat.

Infact I go for the search button on this forum and I made a custom question bank only from MGMAT Magoosh and official prep (kaplan veritas often are wording and confusing only to show a greter difficulty is not necessary for the actual gmat). My opinion.

Thanks lot for your participation.
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Re: While FIFA world ranking may be imperfect, it is the only [#permalink] New post   06 Aug 2012, 21:08
thevenus wrote:
(D) sounds more like an assumption, (E) is the correct answer IMO.
Yes 1992 was not the year of incorporation and the FWR started before that other wise the author had not given stress on this part -....." However, since 1992, FIFA rankings have been a poor indicator of world cup success."
(A) is wrong because it is too generic to be an inference.
OA is E. Thanks for the discussion and clarifications.

Though, I am not completely convinced with the answer, but it seems to be the closest match here. I mean, if I say, "I have lived in my current house since 1992" then it doesn't mean that "I have lived in my house before 1992 as well.".
Let me know if I am thinking in wrong direction here.
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Re: While FIFA world ranking may be imperfect, it is the only [#permalink] New post   23 Jun 2016, 06:49
joshnsit wrote:
thevenus wrote:
(D) sounds more like an assumption, (E) is the correct answer IMO.
Yes 1992 was not the year of incorporation and the FWR started before that other wise the author had not given stress on this part -....." However, since 1992, FIFA rankings have been a poor indicator of world cup success."
(A) is wrong because it is too generic to be an inference.
OA is E. Thanks for the discussion and clarifications.

Though, I am not completely convinced with the answer, but it seems to be the closest match here. I mean, if I say, "I have lived in my current house since 1992" then it doesn't mean that "I have lived in my house before 1992 as well.".
Let me know if I am thinking in wrong direction here.


I am just not convinced with the answer choices provided here. Would some one explain whether the following answer option be correct if it is provided -'There is no official measure that can rank the relative strength of soccer nations better than FIFA rankings'.

Thanks!

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Re: While FIFA world ranking may be imperfect, it is the only [#permalink]
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