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# A dress is marked up 16 2/3% to a final price of $140. What SORT BY: Tags: Show Tags Hide Tags Intern Joined: 20 Aug 2012 Posts: 1 Own Kudos [?]: 70 [48] Given Kudos: 4 Most Helpful Reply Math Expert Joined: 02 Sep 2009 Posts: 93365 Own Kudos [?]: 625481 [15] Given Kudos: 81917 Intern Joined: 15 Aug 2011 Posts: 12 Own Kudos [?]: 57 [12] Given Kudos: 53 Location: United States Concentration: Marketing, Technology GPA: 3.6 WE:Project Management (Computer Software) General Discussion Manager Joined: 12 Jan 2013 Posts: 107 Own Kudos [?]: 206 [0] Given Kudos: 47 Re: A dress is marked up 16 2/3% to a final price of$140. What [#permalink]
Thank you Bunuel, I completely missed the percent...
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A dress is marked up 16 2/3% to a final price of $140. What [#permalink] 2 Kudos I have a bit shorter answer. Since, Markup= Selling price- Cost, and (16 2/3 % = 1/6) so, 1/6x =$140- x
1/6 x + x = $140 7/6 x=$140
x= $120 Intern Joined: 11 Mar 2018 Posts: 3 Own Kudos [?]: 1 [1] Given Kudos: 0 Re: A dress is marked up 16 2/3% to a final price of$140. What [#permalink]
1
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Could anybody please explain in more detail how to convert 16 2/3 % into 1/6?
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Re: A dress is marked up 16 2/3% to a final price of $140. What [#permalink] 1 Kudos Expert Reply liho wrote: Could anybody please explain in more detail how to convert 16 2/3 % into 1/6? $$16\frac{2}{3}=\frac{50}{3}$$, thus $$16\frac{2}{3}$$ percent is $$\frac{(\frac{50}{3})}{100}=\frac{1}{6}$$ (the same ways as 10% is 10/100=0.1). Does this make sense? SVP Joined: 26 Mar 2013 Posts: 2461 Own Kudos [?]: 1363 [0] Given Kudos: 641 Concentration: Operations, Strategy Schools: Erasmus (II) Re: A dress is marked up 16 2/3% to a final price of$140. What [#permalink]
liho wrote:
Could anybody please explain in more detail how to convert 16 2/3 % into 1/6?

$$16\frac{2}{3}=\frac{50}{3}$$.......We need transform percent to fraction:

$$16\frac{2}{3}$$ percent is $$\frac{(\frac{50}{3})}{100}= \frac{50}{3} * \frac{1}{100}= \frac{50}{300} = \frac{1}{6}$$
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Re: A dress is marked up 16 2/3% to a final price of $140. What [#permalink] trushit wrote: A dress is marked up $$16\frac{2}{3}$$% to a final price of$140. What is the original price 3 of the dress?

OA:
120

My concern:
How the answer is 120? According to me the answer should be 140- 16 \frac{2}{3}% x 140 = 116.66

Reference: Chapter 5: FDPs (Manhattan GMAT guide 1: Fractions, Decimals, & Percents)

Thought the question is asking for the original price for 3 of the dresses, hence 120*3 = 360
What is the significance of the 3 ( three ) given in the question?
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A dress is marked up 16 2/3% to a final price of $140. What [#permalink] 16 2/3 % marked up = (50/3)*(1/100) increase = 1/6 => Multiplier = 1+1/6 = 7/6. Let x be the original price of 1 dress. 7/6 x=140 x=(6*140)/7=120 So, 3x=360. (I'm not sure whether the question asked for original price of 1 dress or 3..., or the number "3" was just a typo?! ) Answer:$360 (for 3 dresses).
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Re: A dress is marked up 16 2/3% to a final price of $140. What [#permalink] 2 Kudos 1 Bookmarks Expert Reply trushit wrote: A dress is marked up $$16\frac{2}{3}$$% to a final price of$140. What is the original price 3 of the dress?

OA:
120

My concern:
How the answer is 120? According to me the answer should be 140- 16 \frac{2}{3}% x 140 = 116.66

Reference: Chapter 5: FDPs (Manhattan GMAT guide 1: Fractions, Decimals, & Percents)

Solution:

Let the original price of the dress be p. We can create the equation:

p * (1 + (16 ⅔)/100) = 140

p * (1 + 1/6) = 140

p * 7/6 = 140

p = 140 * 6/7 = $120 Answer:$120
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Re: A dress is marked up 16 2/3% to a final price of $140. What [#permalink] Expert Reply Let the original price of the dress be 'x'. Marked up the price by $$\frac{50}{3}$$% or $$\frac{350}{300}$$ which makes it to 140. => x * $$\frac{350}{300}$$ = 140 => x = 120 Answer 120 Target Test Prep Representative Joined: 14 Oct 2015 Status:Founder & CEO Affiliations: Target Test Prep Posts: 18874 Own Kudos [?]: 22278 [0] Given Kudos: 285 Location: United States (CA) Re: A dress is marked up 16 2/3% to a final price of$140. What [#permalink]
Bunuel wrote:
trushit wrote:
A dress is marked up $$16\frac{2}{3}%$$ to a final price of $140. What is the original price 3 of the dress? OA: 120 Solution: Let the original price of the dress be p. We can create the equation: p * (1 + (16 ⅔)/100) = 140 p * (1 + 1/6) = 140 p * 7/6 = 140 p = 140 * 6/7 =$120

Answer: $120 Intern Joined: 10 Oct 2020 Posts: 44 Own Kudos [?]: 25 [0] Given Kudos: 204 Location: United States (TN) Concentration: Strategy, Finance GPA: 3.74 WE:Analyst (Consumer Products) Re: A dress is marked up 16 2/3% to a final price of$140. What [#permalink]
$$X ((100 + \frac{50}{3})/100) = 140.$$

$$X = \frac{140(100)(3)}{(350)}$$

$$X = 2*20*3 = 120$$
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Re: A dress is marked up 16 2/3% to a final price of $140. What [#permalink] 1 Kudos Top Contributor If you remember the percentage -fraction table , this question would be very easy for you. We know that 1/3 corresponds to 33.33% Also , taking half on both sides, 1/6 corresponds to 16.66% which is same as 16 2/3 % Let the original price be x and it is marked up 16 2/3% to a final price of$140.

X + 1/6 X = 140

7X/6 = 140

X =120
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