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trushit
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Thank you Bunuel, I completely missed the percent...
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I have a bit shorter answer.
Since,

Markup= Selling price- Cost, and (16 2/3 % = 1/6)
so,
1/6x = $140- x
1/6 x + x = $140
7/6 x= $140
x= $120
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Could anybody please explain in more detail how to convert 16 2/3 % into 1/6?
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Could anybody please explain in more detail how to convert 16 2/3 % into 1/6?

\(16\frac{2}{3}=\frac{50}{3}\), thus \(16\frac{2}{3}\) percent is \(\frac{(\frac{50}{3})}{100}=\frac{1}{6}\) (the same ways as 10% is 10/100=0.1).

Does this make sense?
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Could anybody please explain in more detail how to convert 16 2/3 % into 1/6?

\(16\frac{2}{3}=\frac{50}{3}\).......We need transform percent to fraction:

\(16\frac{2}{3}\) percent is \(\frac{(\frac{50}{3})}{100}= \frac{50}{3} * \frac{1}{100}= \frac{50}{300} = \frac{1}{6}\)
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trushit
A dress is marked up \(16\frac{2}{3}\)% to a final price of $140. What is the original price 3 of the dress?

OA:
My concern:
How the answer is 120? According to me the answer should be 140- 16 \frac{2}{3}% x 140 = 116.66
Please explain.

Reference: Chapter 5: FDPs (Manhattan GMAT guide 1: Fractions, Decimals, & Percents)


Thought the question is asking for the original price for 3 of the dresses, hence 120*3 = 360
What is the significance of the 3 ( three ) given in the question?
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16 2/3 % marked up = (50/3)*(1/100) increase = 1/6 => Multiplier = 1+1/6 = 7/6.

Let x be the original price of 1 dress.
7/6 x=140
x=(6*140)/7=120
So, 3x=360. (I'm not sure whether the question asked for original price of 1 dress or 3..., or the number "3" was just a typo?! :D)

Answer: $360 (for 3 dresses).
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trushit
A dress is marked up \(16\frac{2}{3}\)% to a final price of $140. What is the original price 3 of the dress?

OA:
My concern:
How the answer is 120? According to me the answer should be 140- 16 \frac{2}{3}% x 140 = 116.66
Please explain.

Reference: Chapter 5: FDPs (Manhattan GMAT guide 1: Fractions, Decimals, & Percents)
Solution:

Let the original price of the dress be p. We can create the equation:

p * (1 + (16 ⅔)/100) = 140

p * (1 + 1/6) = 140

p * 7/6 = 140

p = 140 * 6/7 = $120

Answer: $120
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Let the original price of the dress be 'x'.

Marked up the price by \(\frac{50}{3}\)% or \(\frac{350}{300}\) which makes it to 140.

=> x * \(\frac{350}{300}\) = 140

=> x = 120

Answer 120
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Bunuel
trushit
A dress is marked up \(16\frac{2}{3}%\) to a final price of $140. What is the original price 3 of the dress?

OA:
Solution:

Let the original price of the dress be p. We can create the equation:

p * (1 + (16 ⅔)/100) = 140

p * (1 + 1/6) = 140

p * 7/6 = 140

p = 140 * 6/7 = $120

Answer: $120
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\(X ((100 + \frac{50}{3})/100) = 140.\)

\(X = \frac{140(100)(3)}{(350)}\)

\(X = 2*20*3 = 120\)
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If you remember the percentage -fraction table , this question would be very easy for you.

We know that 1/3 corresponds to 33.33%

Also , taking half on both sides, 1/6 corresponds to 16.66% which is same as 16 2/3 %

Let the original price be x and it is marked up 16 2/3% to a final price of $140.

X + 1/6 X = 140

7X/6 = 140

X =120
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