mSKR wrote:
Hi
AndrewN sir
I would like to know your comments on B
Sure thing,
mSKR. I will respond to your questions below.
mSKR wrote:
Quote:
Before its bankruptcy in 2008, Goldman Sachs Inc. financed Crystal Technologies, a tech company, as a venture capital investment and they would withdrew all its funding only after a long and comprehensive analysis of the bankrupt tech company’s account books.
(A) Before its bankruptcy in 2008, Goldman Sachs Inc. financed Crystal Technologies, a tech company, as a venture capital investment and they would withdraw all its funding
(B) Before its bankruptcy in 2008, Goldman Sachs Inc. had financed Crystal Technologies, a tech company, as a venture capital investment and withdrew all its funding
(D) Before its bankruptcy in 2008, Crystal Technologies, a tech company, was financed as a venture capital investment by Goldman Sachs Inc., which withdrew all its funding
1.) If for a moment, I ignore which company was bankrupted , What are the key reasons to reject B:
( I could find only 1 key reason)
--> withdrew and had financed - are not parallel. because both happened before 2008- strong reason to reject? Should it be
had withdrawnany other?
Why would we ignore an obvious problem with (B)? Although reading just the underlined portion might lead you to believe that either company could be the one that had faced bankruptcy, reading the non-underlined portion, a crucial SC skill, leads us to a single interpretation:
the bankrupt tech company must be the same as
Crystal Technologies, a tech company, since the GMAT™ would not force someone to know what type of company Goldman Sachs was (even if there is a clue in
financed). Yes,
had financed and
withdrew are not parallel, but it could be the case that Goldman Sachs had put money down on Crystal Technologies and later withdrew additional assistance. I would not use the mismatched verbs alone to eliminate the answer choice.
mSKR wrote:
2.) I don't think presence of had is redundant. It just add more clarity to the sentence. Am I right?
It depends on what the sentence aims to convey. When a
before construct is used, sometimes the simple past makes sense:
Before I ran, I ate a light meal. In another sentence, the past perfect might work better:
Before his ascension to the throne, Henry VIII had already garnered a reputation for being uncompromising. More important than asking whether the past perfect is redundant or incorrect, you should be wondering whether it is
necessary to convey the idea the sentence aims to express. If the answer is no, then stick with the simple past.
mSKR wrote:
3.) Can I use outside knowledge to solve such question because I know Goldman sachs is still existing and was not bankrupted . I remember about Lehman Brothers that was bankrupted. So if Lehman Brothers was present then I could have used that knowledge to get a hint.
That is not how SC works. The question would have to provide enough information for you to be able to make a clearcut distinction as to which company did what. I would not recommend relying on outside knowledge to guide your decision-making during such a question.
mSKR wrote:
4.) Finally, It is clear from the text "bankrupt tech company’s account books. " that Crystal Tech was bankrupted and investor i.e. GS withdrew money.
Yes, as I indicated above. There is no room for misinterpretation since the appositive phrase after Crystal Tech—
a tech company—is later repeated, but with a more restrictive article—
the bankrupt tech company....
mSKR wrote:
Thanks!
Any time. (Even on RC.)
- Andrew