ballest127 wrote:
Hi GMATNinja,
I have a question on Choice C.
If I were to negate it, it would be "All English and Aymara speakers tend to sway or gesture forward or backward when discussing the present. "
If so, can I say that it could damage the argument ?
For example, for English people, when they are discussing the present, they tend to sway forward, just as they do when discussing the future.
If this is the case , can I say that the bodily movements doesn't suggest that the language one speaks affects how one mentally visualizes time.
Please explain.
Thank you very much.
An even better approach is to evaluate (C) without applying the negation test (which can get very unwieldy).
Remember the conclusion of this argument:
"These bodily movements suggest that the language one speaks affects how one mentally visualizes time."
Here's how the logic breaks down:
- English speakers sway backward when discussing the past and forward when discussing the future.
- Aymara speakers gesture forward with their hands when discussing the past and backwards when discussing the future.
- Therefore, these bodily movements suggest that the language one speaks affects how one mentally visualizes time.
The author jumps from language speakers, to those speakers' bodily movements when discussing future and past, to how any given person mentally visualizes time. But that last logical leap isn't explicit!
Choice (D) connects these dots explicitly:
- English speakers sway backward when discussing the past and forward when discussing the future.
- Aymara speakers gesture forward with their hands when discussing the past and backwards when discussing the future.
- How people move when discussing the future correlates to some extent with how they mentally visualize time.
- Therefore, these bodily movements suggest that the language one speaks affects how one mentally visualizes time.
As long as we assume (D) is true, we can conclude that the bodily movements discussed in the passage (which only relate to the future and the past)
suggest that the language one speaks affects how one mentally visualizes time
This doesn't mean that (D)
proves that the conclusion is true. It just means that the author's logic
relies on the truth of choice (D), and that's exactly what we're here to confirm. That's why we keep (D) around.
Choice (C), on the other hand... we'll, let's take a look.
Quote:
(C) Not all English and Aymara speakers tend to sway or gesture forward or backward when discussing the present.
Again, this is where the negation test gets dicey.
The question here is NOT, "Does the 'opposite' of this statement weaken the argument?" The question is, "Does the argument
depend on this assumption?"
In other words, if the argument can work without choice (C), then we can eliminate it.
If we do
not assume that (C) is true, that doesn't necessarily mean that ALL English and Aymara speakers tend to sway or gesture forward or backward when discussing the present. Rather, that just means that, for this argument, we have no idea what English and Aymara speakers do when discussing the present.
But we don't NEED to know anything about the present to reach the conclusion.
Maybe all English and Aymara speakers do sway/gesture when talking about the present. That doesn't change the evidence discussed in the passage (which, again, only relates to the future and the past). Does swaying/gesturing in the present weaken the force of that evidence? Maybe, maybe not (maybe some speakers sway back and forth when discussing the present because it lies on the fence of the future and past?).
Regardless, (C) does not provide the logical link between bodily movements of English and Aymara speakers and how one mentally visualizes time. Only (D) bridges the gap in the author's argument.
I hope this helps!
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