Hi,
I feel you didn't get me.
a/b>1 does not imply a>b
suppose a=-3, b=-2
a/b>1 holds true ,
but does a>b holds true ? ==> No.
If a/b>1 ==> we can imply that a^2>b^2 after squaring both sides.
Kindly correct me ,if i am wrong.
Regrads,
Mahi.[/quote]
mahipalplease understand that in DS questions we need to use the given statements/ relations as the valid and true in #2 it says a/b > 1
so a/b>1 will be true in cases when a>b with both signs as same..
we cannot have a & b in opposite sign as it will break #2[/quote]
Hi,
Yes i agree ,completely with you that the given statements are considered to be right and then in light of these statements we have to consider the original question.
But statement #2 says
a/b>1
which you have inferred as a>b.
but here i am not considering opposite signs of a and b infant i am saying they both have same signs but sign can be both negative as well as both positive.
if we consider the case of both positive then what you are saying holds true.i.e if a/b>1 ==> a>b
But
if we consider the case of both negative then a/b>1 does not imply a>b
suppose a=-3 b=-2
then a/b>1 will hold true , but a>b will not hold true.
This is what i am saying.
If i am not clear now also ,do let me know .
As it is important for me to know what i am missing.
Regards,
Mahi.