Last visit was: 02 May 2024, 11:29 It is currently 02 May 2024, 11:29

Close
GMAT Club Daily Prep
Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.

Customized
for You

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Track
Your Progress

every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance

Practice
Pays

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History
Not interested in getting valuable practice questions and articles delivered to your email? No problem, unsubscribe here.
Close
Request Expert Reply
Confirm Cancel
SORT BY:
Kudos
Tags:
Poor Qualityx      
Show Tags
Hide Tags
Intern
Intern
Joined: 10 Nov 2018
Posts: 8
Own Kudos [?]: 16 [3]
Given Kudos: 88
Send PM
IESE School Moderator
Joined: 11 Feb 2019
Posts: 271
Own Kudos [?]: 171 [1]
Given Kudos: 53
Send PM
Intern
Intern
Joined: 10 Nov 2018
Posts: 8
Own Kudos [?]: 16 [0]
Given Kudos: 88
Send PM
IESE School Moderator
Joined: 11 Feb 2019
Posts: 271
Own Kudos [?]: 171 [0]
Given Kudos: 53
Send PM
Re: m and n are both integers. Is m>n? [#permalink]
happyapple123 wrote:
NitishJain

I think B is sufficient?

B is sufficient if you plug in m=2 and n=1. Thus m>n. Can't find any examples to prove m<n.


Hello happyapple123

try m = -2 and n = -1,here n >m
Math Expert
Joined: 02 Sep 2009
Posts: 93010
Own Kudos [?]: 620755 [0]
Given Kudos: 81730
Send PM
Re: m and n are both integers. Is m>n? [#permalink]
Expert Reply
happyapple123 wrote:
NitishJain

I think B is sufficient?

B is sufficient if you plug in m=2 and n=1. Thus m>n. Can't find any examples to prove m<n.


For (2) to get a NO answer, try m < 0 and n > 0.
Math Expert
Joined: 02 Sep 2009
Posts: 93010
Own Kudos [?]: 620755 [0]
Given Kudos: 81730
Send PM
Re: m and n are both integers. Is m>n? [#permalink]
Expert Reply
NitishJain wrote:
happyapple123 wrote:
NitishJain

I think B is sufficient?

B is sufficient if you plug in m=2 and n=1. Thus m>n. Can't find any examples to prove m<n.


Hello happyapple123

try m = -2 and n = -1,here n >m


Those values do not satisfy (m-n)/n < (m-n)/m.
IESE School Moderator
Joined: 11 Feb 2019
Posts: 271
Own Kudos [?]: 171 [0]
Given Kudos: 53
Send PM
Re: m and n are both integers. Is m>n? [#permalink]
Bunuel wrote:
NitishJain wrote:
happyapple123 wrote:
NitishJain

I think B is sufficient?

B is sufficient if you plug in m=2 and n=1. Thus m>n. Can't find any examples to prove m<n.


Hello happyapple123

try m = -2 and n = -1,here n >m


Those values do not satisfy (m-n)/n < (m-n)/m.


Correct sir. thanks.
Intern
Intern
Joined: 10 Nov 2018
Posts: 8
Own Kudos [?]: 16 [0]
Given Kudos: 88
Send PM
Re: m and n are both integers. Is m>n? [#permalink]
Bunuel

Thanks. Does it mean the answer is C not E then?
Math Expert
Joined: 02 Sep 2009
Posts: 93010
Own Kudos [?]: 620755 [0]
Given Kudos: 81730
Send PM
Re: m and n are both integers. Is m>n? [#permalink]
Expert Reply
happyapple123 wrote:
Bunuel

Thanks. Does it mean the answer is C not E then?


The question is flawed. m/n > 1 and (m-n)/n < (m-n)/m cannot simultaneously be true. Is the question really from egmat?
Manager
Manager
Joined: 05 Jan 2020
Posts: 146
Own Kudos [?]: 132 [0]
Given Kudos: 288
Send PM
Re: m and n are both integers. Is m>n? [#permalink]
happyapple123 wrote:
m and n are both integers. Is m>n?

(1) m/n > 1
(2) (m-n)/n < (m-n)/m


Statement 1: \(m/n>1\) implies both m and n are either positive or negative.
Case1: m,n>0 => m>n
Case2: m,n<0 => m<n

Not sufficient.

Statement 2: \((m-n)/n\) < \((m-n)/m\)
Solving the above equation we'll obtain \(m/n+n/m<2\).
Case1: m<n, m=-2, n=5 => -0.4-2.5 < 0
Case2: m>n, m=5, n =-2 => -2.5-0.4 < 0

Not sufficient.

S1 and S2 together:
From S1 we know m,n>0 => m>n----(1) and m,n<0 => m<n-----(2)
m,n>0 => m-n>0. Cancelling the numerator on both sides we obtain \(1/n<1/m\) => \(m<n\). In contradiction with equation (1).
m,n<0 => m-n<0. The negative signs will cancel out in numerator and denominator and we obtain LHS > RHS. This also fails.

S1 contradicts S2. Even for option E, we need S1 and S2 complementing each other but resulting in more than 1 solution in which case we can't determine the exact solution.

Not sure, where I'm going wrong.
GMAT Club Legend
GMAT Club Legend
Joined: 03 Jun 2019
Posts: 5346
Own Kudos [?]: 3980 [0]
Given Kudos: 160
Location: India
GMAT 1: 690 Q50 V34
WE:Engineering (Transportation)
Send PM
Re: m and n are both integers. Is m>n? [#permalink]
happyapple123 wrote:
m and n are both integers. Is m>n?

(1) m/n > 1
(2) (m-n)/n < (m-n)/m


Given:m and n are both integers.
Asked: Is m>n?

(1) m/n > 1
m/n - 1 > 0
(m-n)/n>0
If n>0; m>n
But if n<0; m<n
NOT SUFFICIENT

(2) (m-n)/n < (m-n)/m
(m-n)/n - (m-n)/m < 0
(m-n)(1/n- 1/m) < 0
(m-n)(m-n)/mn < 0
1/mn < 0; Since (m-n)^2>=0
mn < 0
NOT SUFFICIENT

(1) + (2)
(1) m/n > 1
m/n - 1 > 0
(m-n)/n>0
(2) (m-n)/n < (m-n)/m
(m-n)/n - (m-n)/m < 0
(m-n)(1/n- 1/m) < 0
(m-n)(m-n)/mn < 0
1/mn < 0; mn<0; Since (m-n)^2>=0
If n<0; m>0; m>n
But if n>0; m<0; m<n
NOT SUFFICIENT

IMO E
Manager
Manager
Joined: 10 Dec 2017
Posts: 235
Own Kudos [?]: 207 [0]
Given Kudos: 135
Location: India
Send PM
Re: m and n are both integers. Is m>n? [#permalink]
Bunuel wrote:
happyapple123 wrote:
Bunuel

Thanks. Does it mean the answer is C not E then?


The question is flawed. m/n > 1 and (m-n)/n < (m-n)/m cannot simultaneously be true. Is the question really from egmat?

Excatly.
From 1
m/n>1
and From 2
mn<0
Manager
Manager
Joined: 10 Dec 2017
Posts: 235
Own Kudos [?]: 207 [0]
Given Kudos: 135
Location: India
Send PM
Re: m and n are both integers. Is m>n? [#permalink]
Kinshook wrote:
happyapple123 wrote:
m and n are both integers. Is m>n?

(1) m/n > 1
(2) (m-n)/n < (m-n)/m


Given:m and n are both integers.
Asked: Is m>n?

(1) m/n > 1
m/n - 1 > 0
(m-n)/n>0
If n>0; m>n
But if n<0; m<n
NOT SUFFICIENT

(2) (m-n)/n < (m-n)/m
(m-n)/n - (m-n)/m < 0
(m-n)(1/n- 1/m) < 0
(m-n)(m-n)/mn < 0
1/mn < 0; Since (m-n)^2>=0
mn < 0
NOT SUFFICIENT

(1) + (2)
(1) m/n > 1
m/n - 1 > 0
(m-n)/n>0
(2) (m-n)/n < (m-n)/m
(m-n)/n - (m-n)/m < 0
(m-n)(1/n- 1/m) < 0
(m-n)(m-n)/mn < 0
1/mn < 0; mn<0; Since (m-n)^2>=0
If n<0; m>0; m>n
But if n>0; m<0; m<n
NOT SUFFICIENT

IMO E

From 1
m/n>1
From 2
mn<0
How it is possible that Both are simultaneously true?

This Question is Locked Due to Poor Quality
Hi there,
The question you've reached has been archived due to not meeting our community quality standards. No more replies are possible here.
Looking for better-quality questions? Check out the 'Similar Questions' block below for a list of similar but high-quality questions.
Want to join other relevant Problem Solving discussions? Visit our Data Sufficiency (DS) Forum for the most recent and top-quality discussions.
Thank you for understanding, and happy exploring!
GMAT Club Bot
Re: m and n are both integers. Is m>n? [#permalink]

Powered by phpBB © phpBB Group | Emoji artwork provided by EmojiOne